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Vendor: CompTIA
Certifications: Network+
Exam Name: Network + Certification Exam
Exam Code: N10-005
Total Questions: 828 Q&As

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New CompTIA Network+ N10-005 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-20)

QUESTION 1
Which of the following protocols works at the LOWEST layer of the OSI model?
A. L2TP
B. PPTP
C. ISAKMP
D. IPSec
Correct Answer: A

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Layer Two Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) is an extension of the Point-to-Point Tunneling Protocol (PPTP) used by an Internet service provider (ISP) to enable the operation of a virtual private network (VPN) over the Internet.

QUESTION 2
An employee connects to a work computer from home via the built-in Windows remote desktop connection.
Which of the following is MOST likely being used to establish the connection?
A. RDP
B. RTP
C. RIP
D. RAS
Correct Answer: A

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) is a proprietary protocol developed by Microsoft, which provides a user with a graphical interface to connect to another computer over a network connection. The user employs RDP client software for this purpose, while the other computer must run RDP server software.

QUESTION 3
Discover, Offer, Request, and Acknowledge are the steps for which of the following protocols?
A. DNS
B. DOS
C. DHCP
D. DSL
Correct Answer: C

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
When we install a dhcp server into our network then dhcp server works on the basis of dora process first dhcp server sends a hello message in to the network to discover the clients pc and when any client pc found in the network then, dhcp server offers the IP to client pc. When client pc selects any IP from dhcp server then client pc request for selected IP to dhcp server then dhcp server provide that IP to client pc and both send ackonledgement to each other.

QUESTION 4
Which of the following commands displays the routing table on a server or workstation?
A. nbtstat
B. route
C. traceroute
D. nmap
Correct Answer: B

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The route command allows you to make manual entries into the network routing tables. The route command distinguishes between routes to hosts …

QUESTION 5
At which of the following layers of the OSI model does ASCII work?
A. Session
B. Transport
C. Presentation
D. Application
Correct Answer: C

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The presentation layer is responsible for the delivery and formatting of information to the application layer for further processing or display. N10-005 dumps It relieves the application layer of concern regarding syntactical differences in data representation within the end-user systems. An example of a presentation service would be the conversion of an EBCDIC-coded text computer file to an ASCII-coded file.

QUESTION 6
Which of the following uses port 23 by default?
A. TELNET
B. IMAP
C. FTP
D. SNMP
Correct Answer: A

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Telnet is a network protocol used on the Internet or local area networks to provide a bidirectional interactive text-oriented communication facility using a virtual terminal connection. User data is interspersed in-band with Telnet control information in an 8-bit byte oriented data connection over the Transmission Control Protocol (TCP).

QUESTION 7
Assigning the same IP address to a network device is which of the following?
A. SSID
B. Scope
C. Reservation
D. Lease
Correct Answer: C

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
You might want to assign network printers and certain servers DHCP reservations to ensure that they always have the same IP address, but continue to receive updated configuration information from the DHCP server. For example, create reservations for servers that must always have the same IP address.

QUESTION 8
At which of the following layers do frames exist? (Select TWO).
A. OSI model Data link layer
B. TCP/IP model Network Interface layer
C. OSI model Physical layer
D. OSI model Network layer
E. TCP/IP model Internet layer
Correct Answer: AB

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The data link layer is concerned with local delivery of frames between devices on the same LAN. Data-link frames, as these protocol data units are called, do not cross the boundaries of a local network. Inter-network routing and global addressing are higher layer functions, allowing data-link protocols to focus on local delivery, addressing, and media arbitration. In this way, the data link layer is analogous to a neighborhood traffic cop; it endeavors to arbitrate between parties contending for access to a medium, without concern for their ultimate destination.

QUESTION 9
A user is unable to access any network resources. The IP configuration of the workstation is as follows:
IP Address: 192.168.10.32
Subnet Mask: 255.255.255.240
Default Gateway: 192.168.10.46
Which of the following would allow the user to connect to network resources?
A. Change the default gateway to 192.168.10.1
B. Change the default gateway to 192.168.10.254
C. Change the IP address to 192.168.10.31
D. Change the IP address to 192.168.10.33
Correct Answer: D

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The given ip address is network id which we don’t assign to the host so the next ip is applicable to this.

QUESTION 10
Which of the following DNS records is used to identify a domain’s SMTP server?
A. CNAME
B. PTR
C. MX
D. A
Correct Answer: C

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A mail exchanger record (MX record) is a type of resource record in the Domain Name System that specifies a mail server responsible for accepting email messages on behalf of a recipient’s domain, and a preference value used to prioritize mail delivery if multiple mail servers are available. The set of MX records of a domain name specifies how email should be routed with the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP).

QUESTION 11
Which of the following TCP ports are used by FTP? (Select TWO).
A. 20
B. 21
C. 22
D. 23
E. 25
F. 80
Correct Answer: AB

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
FTP uses two ports by default: 21 for sending commands, and 20 for sending data. For instance if you said “FTP ” it would make the attempt using port 21. N10-005 dumps If the session was established, port 20 would be using for the data. NotE. These are the default ports which is what I assume you were asking. A server administrator can however configure FTP to use whatever port he defines.

QUESTION 12
Which of the following protocols is MOST commonly used for the transfer of router configuration files?
A. SSL
B. TFTP
C. DNS
D. IMAP
Correct Answer: B

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a file transfer protocol notable for its simplicity. It is generally used for automated transfer of configuration or boot files between machines in a local environment. Compared to FTP, TFTP is extremely limited, providing no authentication, and is rarely used interactively by a user.

QUESTION 13
Which of the following protocols resolves IP addresses to MAC addresses?
A. DNS
B. ARP
C. RARP
D. NTP
Correct Answer: B

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
ARP is used to convert an IP address to a physical address such as an Ethernet address. ARP has been implemented with many combinations of network and data link layer technologies, such as IPv4, Chaosnet, DECnet and Xerox PARC Universal Packet (PUP) using IEEE 802 standards, FDDI, X.25, Frame Relay and Asynchronous Transfer Mode (ATM). IPv4 over IEEE 802.3 and IEEE 802.11 is the most common case.

QUESTION 14
Which of the following port numbers is used for SNMP?
A. 61
B. 151
C. 161
D. 1611
Correct Answer: C

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) is an “Internet-standard protocol for managing devices on IP networks”. Devices that typically support SNMP include routers, switches, servers, workstations, printers, modem racks, UPSes and more. It is used mostly in network management systems to monitor networkattached devices for conditions that warrant administrative attention.

QUESTION 15
Which of the following is the definition of a DNS server?
A. Hosts proprietary business applications
B. Translates FQDN’s to IP addresses
C. Provides network IDS/IPS security
D. Assigns IP addresses to network devices
Correct Answer: B

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Domain Name System (DNS) is the name resolution protocol for TCP/IP networks, such as the Internet. Client computers query a DNS server to resolve memorable, alphanumeric DNS names to the IP addresses that computers use to communicate with each other.

QUESTION 16
Which of the following features can BEST be used to facilitate authorized remote access to a network?
A. VPN concentrator
B. Proxy server
C. Content filter
D. Load balancer
Correct Answer: A

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
The VPN Concentrator is used for Remote Access VPN’s. In typical use, a Remote Access VPN allows users to use an encrypted tunnel to securely access a corporate or other network via the Internet.

QUESTION 17
Which of the following is a Class A IP address?
A. 10.4.0.1
B. 169.254.0.1
C. 192.168.0.1
D. 254.200.0.1
Correct Answer: A

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
Class A ip address ranges from 10.0.0.0 to 10.255.255.255

QUESTION 18
A network where all traffic feeds through a centralized gateway uses which of the following topologies?
A. Peer-to-peer
B. Ring
C. Bus
D. Star
Correct Answer: D

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A bus topology is a type of network setup where each computer and network device is connected to a single cable or backbone.

QUESTION 19
N10-005 dumps In order to limit the number of dynamic addresses of hosts on a network, which of the following can be implemented?
A. Scope options
B. Leases
C. Reservations
D. DNS suffixes
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 20
Which of the following switch features allows for both incoming and outgoing data across physical ports at the same time?
A. Burst-frame
B. Full-duplex
C. Half-duplex
D. VoIP
Correct Answer: B

Explanation
Explanation/Reference:
A full-duplex (FDX), or sometimes double-duplex system, allows communication in both directions, and, unlike half-duplex, allows this to happen simultaneously. Land-line telephone networks are full-duplex, since they allow both callers to speak and be heard at the same time.

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Vendor: Citrix
Exam Name: Architecting a Citrix Virtualization Solution
Exam Code: 1Y0-A16
Version: Demo
Total Questions: 77 Q&As
1Y0-A16 dumps
QUESTION 1
Scenario: In order to plan for the possibility of a pandemic flu, the HR department for Healthy Helping Hands has asked an architect to test whether the infrastructure could accommodate 300 key or “at risk” workers working from home over a two week period.
Based on the information in the assessment document, can the existing infrastructure support such a situation?
A. No, there are insufficient licenses available to support this requirement.
B. Yes, sufficient capacity exists to support this temporary requirement; no action is required.
C. No, two additional servers are required to support the remote workers during this two week period.
D. No, the Secure Gateway/Web Interface server has insufficient capacity to support this requirement.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Based on the assessment document, which two actions must the architect take regarding Citrix licensing in order to properly assess the environment? (Choose two.)
A. Restart the IIS Service.
B. Restart the Citrix Licensing Service.
C. Add the REPORTLOG keyword to the options file.
D. Create a file called REPORT.LOG in C:\Program Files\Citrix\MyFiles.
E. Select a network share to which the local system account has write access.
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 3
Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands are looking into making New York and San Francisco their two principal sites, each capable of failing over to the other. This will be one of the major requirements for the Citrix infrastructure design. 1Y0-A16 dumps
Which two backend infrastructure components need improvements in disaster recovery support as part of this project? (Choose two.)
A. HP SAN storage
B. User Profile server
C. PositivelyPeople database
D. Terminal Services license server
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 4
How should an architect recommend delivering applications to the Manufacturing users at Healthy Helping Hands?
A. Publish the applications to new PCs.
B. Publish the applications to their existing devices.
C. Use XenDesktop to deliver disk-based thin clients.
D. Publish the applications to new diskless thin clients.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Based on the CIO’s WAN traffic requirement, users at which two locations would have a single point of failure when attempting to access to their applications? (Choose two.)
A. New York Main Site
B. San Francisco Office
C. Berlin Regional Office
D. Manchester Branch Sales Office
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 6
— Exhibit —
1Y0-A16 dumps
— Exhibit —
Scenario: Healthy Helping Hands has created a new pilot XenApp 5 Platinum Edition farm with applications delivered to 25 pilot users. The pilot farm includes all the applications that were previously published to the HR users and some additional applications to support Manufacturing. 1Y0-A16 dumps During the pilot week of September 14th, the users of the PositivelyPeople application reported that the application was responding slowly.
Fortunately, EdgeSight had been installed and configured in the pilot farm and was recording data during the pilot. Attached in the exhibit is the information gathered from the Transaction Network Delay report from EdgeSight.
Which theory effectively explains the data that is presented in the report?
A. The XenApp server is waiting on another host to respond, most likely the server hosting the PositivelyPeople database.
B. The XenApp server is waiting on the network packet queue to clear as evidenced by the 9ms network latency being reported.
C. The XenApp server is reaching maximum capacity, and the lack of physical resources on the XenApp server is causing the response delay.
D. The Network Delay on 9/19/2009 is probably the source of complaints from the HR Users. An average network latency of almost 9ms is unacceptable.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Which two components need to be included in the updated disaster recovery plan, given the current Disaster Recovery Plan as outlined in the assessment document? (Choose two.)
A. EdgeSight database
B. User data directories
C. Citrix XenApp servers
D. User profile directories
E. PositivelyPeople database
Correct Answer: CE

QUESTION 8
Healthy Helping Hands has decided to replace the PCs used by the Customer Service and Manufacturing teams with new thin clients, as the PCs are running operating systems which are no longer covered by extended support.
How many of these thin clients will need to be purchased?
A. 50
B. 250
C. 3000
D. 3050
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Scenario: The IT managers at Healthy Helping Hands want to develop a new virtualized environment based out of their San Francisco and New York sites to provide applications to all of their staff. This represents a large increase in the number of servers and users from the current system.
Which option represents a technical challenge that needs to be overcome in order to meet this objective?
A. Disabled user Logon Scripts
B. Minimal set of Group Policy Objects
C. Local User Profiles on XenApp Servers
D. All Citrix servers isolated in a separate OU
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
Scenario: Before upgrading or expanding the Healthy Helping Hands environment, an architect wants to be sure that all current application issues are identified so they can be addressed.
Based on the assessment document, which two tools would be best suited to ensure all current issues have been identified before moving forward with the project? (Choose two.)
A. EdgeSight
B. Resource Manager
C. Windows Event Logs
D. Windows Performance Monitor
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 11
Scenario: The IT manager at Healthy Helping Hands decided to pilot EdgeSight on the existing Presentation Server 4.0 farm to gather information regarding the slow logon times that Human Resources users are experiencing. 1Y0-A16 dumps The administrators completed the following tasks:
1. Installed the EdgeSight Server on a Windows Server 2003 SP1 server with the appropriate software versions for all prerequisites documented in the EdgeSight Installation Guide
2. Installed the EdgeSight Web Server, SQL Server 2005 SP2 Database with Reporting Services and EdgeSight console on a single server for the pilot
3. Installed the EdgeSight agent on all eight of the servers in the Presentation Server 4.0 farm
4. Configured EdgeSight to use the default worker and agent settings
5. Verified that all eight of the agents reported to the EdgeSight console within the first 24 hours after installation
After seven days, the data is examined and the reports show the following:
Session information, such as Logon Time and Session ID, is captured and reported for all the user sessions. Detailed information about the logon experience, such as the Profile Load Time (PLSD) or Logon Script Execution time (LSESD), is displayed in the reports.Which statement accurately describes why the End-User Experience Metrics (EUEM) is unavailable through the default reports on the EdgeSight Console?
A. These metrics are available but must be accessed by querying the agent’s local Firebird database directly.
B. These metrics are available in the EdgeSight SQL database; a custom report can be created through Reporting Services.
C. The Human Resource users are accessing the Presentation Server 4.0 environment using an unsupported Citrix plug-in that does not send the metrics.
D. The server running Presentation Server 4.0 does not support the collection of these metrics because the server is unaware of the EUEM virtual ICA channel.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Scenario: As part of a government initiative to provide support to the general public during a global pandemic, Healthy Helping Hands is required to contribute to a national helpline service. This will require an additional 500 to 2000 users to be logged into the Healthy Helping Hands applications. To comply with this requirement, Healthy Helping Hands will need to provide the additional capacity within 24 hours of the request. The additional capacity must also be fully secure and fault tolerant.
Based on the current infrastructure, how would the architect meet the requirement in this scenario?
A. The current infrastructure would only require publishing additional applications in the current XenApp farm.
B. To meet capacity requirements, XenDesktop would be required to allow additional connections to be made.
C. The current infrastructure would only require the Secure Gateway/Web Interface components to be upgraded.
D. To meet capacity requirements a Provisioning Services server would be required to bring additional server capacity online when required.
Correct Answer: D

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Latest effective CompTIA CySA+ CS0-001 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Weeks before a proposed merger is scheduled for completion, a security analyst has noticed unusual traffic patterns on
a file server that contains financial information. Routine scans are not detecting the signature of any known exploits or
malware. The following entry is seen in the ftp server logs:
tftp -I 10.1.1.1 GET fourthquarterreport.xls
Which of the following is the BEST course of action?
A. Continue to monitor the situation using tools to scan for known exploits.
B. Implement an ACL on the perimeter firewall to prevent data exfiltration.
C. Follow the incident response procedure associate with the loss of business critical data.
D. Determine if any credit card information is contained on the server containing the financials.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
A cybersecurity analyst has several log files to review. Instead of using grep and cat commands, the analyst decides to
find a better approach to analyze the logs. Given a list of tools, which of the following would provide a more efficient way
for the analyst to conduct a timeline analysis, do keyword searches, and output a report?
A. Kali
B. Splunk
C. Syslog
D. OSSIM
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
A threat intelligence analyst who works for a financial services firm received this report:
“There has been an effective waterhole campaign residing at www.bankfinancecompsoftware.com. This domain is
delivering ransomware. This ransomware variant has been called “LockMaster” by researchers due to its ability to
overwrite
the MBR, but this term is not a malware signature. Please execute a defensive operation regarding this attack vector.”
The analyst ran a query and has assessed that this traffic has been seen on the network. Which of the following actions
should the analyst do NEXT? (Select TWO).
A. Advise the firewall engineer to implement a block on the domain
B. Visit the domain and begin a threat assessment
C. Produce a threat intelligence message to be disseminated to the company
D. Advise the security architects to enable full-disk encryption to protect the MBR
E. Advise the security analysts to add an alert in the SIEM on the string “LockMaster”
F. Format the MBR as a precaution
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 4
Several accounting department users are reporting unusual Internet traffic in the browsing history of their workstations
alter returning to work awl logging in. The building security team informs the IT security team that the cleaning stall was
caught using the systems after the accounting department users left for the day Which of the following steps should the
IT security team take to help prevent this from happening again? (Select TWO)
A. Install a web monitors application to track Internet usage after hours
B. Configure a policy for workstation account timeout at three minutes
C. Configure NAC lo set time-based restrictions on the accounting group to normal business hours
D. Configure mandatory access controls to allow only accounting department users lo access the workstations
E. Set up a camera to monitor the workstations for unauthorized use
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 5
An organization wants to harden its web servers. As part of this goal, leadership has directed that vulnerability scans be
performed, and the security team should remediate the servers according to industry best practices. The team has
already chosen a vulnerability scanner and performed the necessary scans, and now the team needs to prioritize the
fixes. Which of the following would help to prioritize the vulnerabilities for remediation in accordance with industry best
practices?
A. CVSS
B. SLA
C. ITIL
D. OpenVAS
E. Qualys
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A technician recently fixed a computer with several viruses and spyware programs on it and notices the Internet settings
were set to redirect all traffic through an unknown proxy. This type of attack is known as which of the following?
A. Phishing
B. Social engineering
C. Man-in-the-middle
D. Shoulder surfing
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
A business-critical application is unable to support the requirements in the current password policy because it does not
allow the use of special characters. Management does not want to accept the risk of a possible security incident due to
weak password standards. Which of the following is an appropriate means to limit the risks related to the application?
A. A compensating control
B. Altering the password policy
C. Creating new account management procedures
D. Encrypting authentication traffic
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A cybersecurity analyst is completing an organization\\’s vulnerability report and wants it to reflect assets accurately.
Which of the following items should be in the report?
A. Processor utilization
B. Virtual hosts
C. Organizational governance
D. Log disposition
E. Asset isolation
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
A cybersecurity professional wants to determine if a web server is running on a remote host with the IP address
192.168.1.100. Which of the following can be used to perform this task?
A. nc 192.168.1.100 -1 80
B. ps aux 192.168.1.100
C. nmap 192.168.1.100 –p 80 –A
D. dig www 192.168.1.100
E. ping –p 80 192.168.1.100
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A computer has been infected with a virus and is sending out a beacon to command and control server through an
unknown service. Which of the following should a security technician implement to drop the traffic going to the command
and control server and still be able to identify the infected host through firewall logs?
A. Sinkhole
B. Block ports and services
C. Patches
D. Endpoint security
Correct Answer: A
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QUESTION 11
A cybersecurity analyst has received an alert that well-known “call home” messages are continuously observed by
network sensors at the network boundary. The proxy firewall successfully drops the messages. After determining the
alert was a true positive, which of the following represents the MOST likely cause?
A. Attackers are running reconnaissance on company resources.
B. An outside command and control system is attempting to reach an infected system.
C. An insider is trying to exfiltrate information to a remote network.
D. Malware is running on a company system.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is MOST effective for correlation analysis by log for threat management?
A. PCAP
B. SCAP
C. IPS
D. SIEM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
An incident response report indicates a virus was introduced through a remote host that was connected to corporate
resources. A cybersecurity analyst has been asked for a recommendation to solve this issue. Which of the following
should be applied?
A. MAC
B. TAP
C. NAC
D. ACL
Correct Answer: C

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QUESTION 1
An administrator is having some trouble with a disk partition and needs to do maintenance on this partition. The
administrator\\’s users home directories are on it and several are logged in. Which of the following commands would
disconnect the users and allow the administrator to safely execute maintenance tasks?
A. telinit 1
B. shutdown -r now
C. killall -9 inetd
D. /bin/netstop –maint
E. /etc/rc.d/init.d/network stop
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
How does an administrator get a list of files that have been installed from a dpkg package?
A. dpkg -l pkgname
B. dpkg -C pkgname
C. dpkg -s pkgname
D. dpkg -S pkgname
E. dpkg -L pkgname
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
An administrator is experimenting with a binary in /tmp/foo.d that expects its configuration file at /etc/foo.conf. The
administrator does not want to save it there, but use a symbolic link to /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf instead. Which of the
following commands would accomplish this?
A. ln -s /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf /etc/foo.conf
B. ln /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf /etc/foo.conf
C. ln -s /etc/foo.conf /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf
D. ln /etc/foo.conf /tmp/foo.d/foo.conf
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
An administrator wants to display all currently mounted file systems. Which command would be used? (Please enter
only a single command without arguments or options).
Correct Answer: /BIN/DF,/BIN/MOUNT,DF,MOUNT

QUESTION 5
Many people like the vi text editor but the default bash command line editor recognizes emacs keystrokes. Which of the
following commands, entered into a bash initialization file, will have bash recognize vi keystrokes after login?
A. history -p vi
B. alias emacs=vi
C. HISTCMD=vi
D. set -o vi
E. unset emacs
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
The system configuration file named is commonly used to set the default runlevel. (Please provide the fill name with full
path information).
Correct Answer: /ETC/INITTAB

QUESTION 7
Which of the following keys should an administrator press to switch to normal mode in vi?
A. Alt
B. Esc
C. Ctrl
D. Shift
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
To what environment variable will an administrator assign or append a value if the administrator needs to tell the
dynamic linker to look in a build directory for some of a program\\’s shared libraries?
A. LD_LOAD_PATH
B. LD_LIB_PATH
C. LD_LIBRARY_PATH
D. LD_SHARE_PATH
E. LD_RUN_PATH
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which of the following is the purpose of the Bash built-in export command?
A. To allow disks to be mounted remotely.
B. To run a command as a process in a sub-shell.
C. To make the command history available to sub-shells.
D. To setup environment variables for applications.
E. To share NFS partitions for use by other systems on the network.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 10
The message “Hard Disk Error” is displayed on the screen during Stage 1 of the GRUB boot process. Which of the
following does this indicate?
A. The kernel was unable to execute /bin/init
B. The next Stage cannot be read from the hard disk because GRUB was unable to determine the size and geometry of
the disk
C. One or more of the filesystems on the hard disk has errors and a filesystem check should be run
D. The BIOS was unable to read the necessary data from the Master Boot Record to begin the boot process
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Select the line that BEST represents what permissions the /etc/passwd file should have.
A. -rw——- 1 root root 531 Jun 5 22:45 /etc/passwd
B. -rw-r–r– 1 root root 531 Jun 5 22:45 /etc/passwd
C. -rw-r–r– 1 1 1 531 Jun 5 22:45 /etc/passwd
D. All answers listed are not correct.
E. All answers listed are correct.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
In compliance with the FHS, in which of the following places are man pages typically found?
A. /usr/share/man
B. /opt/man
C. /usr/doc/
D. /var/pkg/man
E. /usr/local/man
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An administrator is having some trouble with a disk partition and needs to do maintenance on this partition. The
administrator\\’s users home directories are on it and several are logged in. Which of the following commands would
disconnect the users and allow the administrator to safely execute maintenance tasks?
A. telinit 1
B. shutdown -r now
C. killall -9 inetd
D. /bin/netstop –maint
E. /etc/rc.d/init.d/network stop
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
How can an administrator update a package only if an earlier version is currently installed on the system?
A. rpm –update rpmname
B. rpm -U rpmname
C. rpm -F rpmname
D. rpm –force rpmname
E. rpm -u rpmname
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 15
Which of the following configuration files should be modified to disable the ctrl-alt-delete key
A. /etc/keys
B. /proc/keys
C. /etc/inittab
D. /proc/inittab
E. /etc/reboot
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 16
Which of the following Debian package system commands will list all partially installed packages and suggest how to get
them correctly installed?
A. dpkg -C
B. apt-get -u
C. dpkg -Dh
D. dpkg -l
E. apt-get -y
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
To allow a regular user account to mount and unmount a filesystem (for instance, a cdrom or floppy), which of the
following options will need to be added to the corresponding line in /etc/fstab?
A. nouidchk
B. alluser
C. user
D. auto
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
To prevent users from being able to fill up the / partition, the directory should be on a separate partition if possible
because it is world writeable.
Correct Answer: /TMP,TMP

QUESTION 19
What command with all options and/or parameters will send the signal USR1 to any executing process of program
apache2?
Correct Answer: KILLALL-SSIGUSR1APACHE2,KILLALL-SUSR1APACHE2,KILLALLSIGUSR1APACHE2, KILLALL-
USR1APACHE2

QUESTION 20
In which directory must definition files be placed to add additional repositories to yum?
Correct Answer: /ETC/YUM.REPOS.D,/ETC/YUM.REPOS.D/,YUM.REPOS.D,YUM.REPOS.D/

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QUESTION 1

Which of the following is a subcomponent of a virtual machine? 

A. Virtual switch 

B. Virtual HBA 

C. Virtual shield 

D. Virtual OS 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 2

A company has virtualized all of their servers on one physical server located on the company\\’s first floor datacenter.

The company also uses security software from a third-party cloud vendor as part of a SaaS contract. The overall cloud

network model for this company\\’s network is BEST described by which of the following? 

A. Hybrid 

B. Offsite public 

C. On-site private 

D. Community 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 3

Which of the following cloud delivery models is deployed over a company intranet or company- hosted datacenter? 

A. Private cloud 

B. Hybrid cloud 

C. Community cloud 

D. Public cloud 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 4

Which of the following is true about a Type II hypervisor? 

A. It requires a primary hypervisor to function properly. 

B. It implements stronger security controls than a Type I supervisor at the same patch level. 

C. It provides slower performance than a Type I hypervisor installed on the same hardware. 

D. It provides direct hardware access through the use of specialized drivers. 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 5

A company has just established a new branch office that needs to connect back to centrally hosted applications for day

to day operations. The branch office has noted that access to many company services are slow and causing a drop in

productivity. The company IT department has investigated a plan to improve performance across the link to the branch

office without having to pay for more bandwidth from the Internet Service Provider. This plan includes hardware that

after installation will allow for much faster access to day to day business applications. Which of the following terms

BEST describes the action taken by the IT department? 

A. LAN optimization 

B. WAN optimization 

C. Load balancing 

D. Bandwidth compression 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 6

A company uses a third-party utility to protect critical virtual machines. The third party uses deduplication to compress

workloads without degrading performance. Which of the following should be tested to ensure appropriate network

support? 

A. Bandwidth 

B. Trunking 

C. Caching 

D. Compression 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 7

An administrator deployed a DaaS cloud delivery model for a financial institution and implemented a data encryption

technology using AES cryptography. Which of the following should the administrator implement NEXT? 

A. Access controls 

B. RC5 

C. SSL 

D. Zoning 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 8

Which of the following will explain why only some of the CPU cycles are available to a virtualized server using two

virtualized processors? 

A. Extra processing is needed to store encryption keys used for secure transmission between the server and the

network. 

B. Additional processing is used to run ports and services not turned off through the process of server hardening. 

C. Some processing is required for operational overhead on the processor and between the physical and virtualized

processors. 

D. Significant processing is used to create and maintain the cache on multi-core processors. 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 9

An administrator adds a new virtualization host to an existing cluster but is unable to move existing VMs to the new host.

Which of the following is MOST likely to be a reason for the VM mobility failure? 

A. There are too many connections to the iSCSI LUN. 

B. Minimum memory configuration has not been met in the system. 

C. The host has not been added to the resource pool. 

D. Different CPU architectures are being used. 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 10

Which of the following types of virtual components performs Layer 3 functions between networks in a virtualized

environment? 

A. Virtual switch 

B. Virtual router 

C. Virtual NIC 

D. Virtual HBA 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 11

An administrator has enabled NPIV and has configured the SAN for SAN boot; however, SAN boot fails intermittently.

Which of the following, if configured incorrectly, could cause the issue? 

A. LUN Masking 

B. Storage cluster 

C. Zoning 

D. WWPN 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 12

The IT department of a company has received many calls concerning slow response time from a common application.

The administrator can develop a solution after diagnosing the symptoms by using: 

A. New virtual resources. 

B. Customer surveys. 

C. Performance and monitoring tools. 

D. Scheduled maintenance time. 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 13

Which of the following would be used to mitigate the risk of an unauthorized party authenticating into the network? 

A. Install a software-based firewall 

B. Establish a baseline and review logs daily 

C. Install antivirus software 

D. Disable the administrator account 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 14

An administrator is responsible for maintenance and support of servers in the cloud environment. There are over 500

virtual servers spanning across ten physical hosts. The administrator deploys a new application server. The

administrator allocated the appropriate virtual resources for the application. Users report slow response after the new

server was deployed. Which of the following is the cause of this issue? 

A. Storage allocation on the guest OS 

B. Resource pooling mis-configuration 

C. Application licensing expiration 

D. Data segregation on the host OS 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 15

A new self-service provisioning system has been deployed to serve the company\\’s rapid VM provisioning needs. Since

the website is in the DMZ, HTTPS is required, but company policy states that SSL certificates can not terminate at the

server. The company also has a requirement that the web portal be redundant while providing session state. Which of

the following availability technologies can be used to meet the company\\’s requirements? 

A. Failover 

B. Multipathing 

C. Load balancing 

D. Failback 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 16

Which of the following events will force a storage migration in a virtual environment? 

A. Reaching the end of the CPU hardware lifecycle 

B. Reaching the end of the NIC hardware lifecycle 

C. Reaching the end of the SAN hardware lifecycle 

D. Reaching the end of the RAM hardware lifecycle 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 17

Which of the following solutions would an administrator deploy to meet high availability requirements? 

A. Implement communication delivery services. 

B. Implement fault tolerant systems. 

C. Implement infrastructure delivery services. 

D. Implement application delivery services. 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 18

The performance logs on a virtualization server show a large number of pages being written to disk at a high rate. Which

of the following should the technician do? 

A. Increase the amount of swap space on the disk 

B. Increase the amount of physical memory 

C. Install and provision additional disk space 

D. Allocate additional CPU power to the guests 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 19

In which of the following situations would a network administrator optimize a company\\’s WAN? 

A. High amounts of packet loss on a switch port 

B. CPU utilization on a switch is at 95% 

C. Installed new local application on a private network 

D. Contracted with a SaaS provider to provide a new application 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 20

A network administrator has been asked to implement a security solution to protect a company\\’s internal network from

external threats on the Internet. Which of the following technologies is the administrator MOST likely to use? 

A. IDS 

B. Proxy 

C. DMZ 

D. Firewall 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 21

Which of the following is the BEST approach to re-architect a server farm running transport encryption termination on

web servers when HA is an overall major requirement? 

A. Implement an HTTP proxy on the DMZ. 

B. Implement a traffic manager with ports 80 and 443 enabled. 

C. Implement a load balancer with port SSL enabled. 

D. Implement a traffic manager with TCP and UDP enabled. 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 22

Which of the following provides a secure tunnel through the Internet? 

A. DMZ 

B. IDS 

C. ACL 

D. VPN 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 23

New servers were purchased specifically for virtualization capabilities. However, the hypervisor of choice cannot find

compatible processors on the new servers. Which of the following would a system administrator MOST likely need to

configure to enable virtualization features for these systems? 

A. IPMI 

B. RAM 

C. BIOS 

D. HBAs 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 24

A small business is moving ten physical servers to the cloud. Which of the following should the cloud provider

implement to ensure that all ten servers can dynamically share memory resources with other tenants as needed while

not interfering with the other tenants? 

A. Soft limits 

B. Load balancing 

C. Resource pooling 

D. Caching 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 25

A programmer removes OS software from a laptop during development of a new prototype for the company. After the

code is promoted from development to QA, none of the QA testers can get the application to work. Which of the

following is MOST likely the cause of the application not working properly in QA? 

A. QA systems require a reboot after a new application is installed 

B. Programmer did not compile the code properly 

C. Programmer put the source code in repository without any validations 

D. QA systems are missing patches 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 26

Which of the following is a MINIMUM requirement for VM online migration? 

A. Same CPU family between source and target hosts. 

B. Same network equipment between source and target hosts. 

C. Same hardware vendor for the datacenter. 

D. Same hypervisor versions between source and target hosts. 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 27

An administrator needs to add more guests in a virtual environment. Which of the following MUST the administrator take

into account before adding additional VMs to a host? (Select TWO). 

A. Amount of RAM 

B. Number of virtual CPUs 

C. Number of CPU cores 

D. Number of power supplies 

E. Number of network cards 

Correct Answer: AC 

QUESTION 28

A technician wants to remotely gather a list of all the software running on the client PCs throughout the organization.

Which of the following should be used to gather this information? 

A. WMI 

B. SQL 

C. Syslog 

D. SNMP 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 29

A system administrator identified an issue on a critical server that is hosted in the cloud. The user community is affected

by this issue, but is still able to work. A reboot is needed to rectify this issue. Which of the following steps should the

administrator do FIRST to resolve this issue? 

A. Contact the user community 

B. Establish a back-out plan 

C. Enter a change request 

D. Reboot the server 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 30

A critical hypervisor security patch has been released and needs to be rolled out as soon as possible. Which of the

following steps can be taken to minimize downtime for all guest VMs currently running? 

A. In the next scheduled maintenance window, apply patch, reboot host, and wait for all VMs to come back online. 

B. In the next scheduled maintenance window, migrate VMs to another host. Remove host from any availability clusters,

patch host, reboot host, and place host back into availability cluster. 

C. In the next scheduled maintenance window, shut down all VMs, apply patch, reboot host, and wait for all VMs to

come back online. 

D. In the next scheduled maintenance window, migrate VMs to another host. Remove host from any availability clusters,

unplug network cables from host, patch host, reboot host, reconnect network cables, and place host back into

availability cluster. 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 31

Which of the following routine practices can help protect required and running services during an attack? 

A. Antivirus software 

B. Disabling unneeded ports 

C. SSL 

D. Patching 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 32

Students in a virtual lab must be able to upload and download homework assignments from personal external storage

devices to their virtual desktops. Which of the following should the lab administrator implement to allow students to

upload files? 

A. Resource pooling 

B. Secure FTP 

C. Storage quotas 

D. Port mapping 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 33

Which of the following tests would be MOST appropriate when determining the need for patches and updates to servers

in the datacenter? 

A. Penetration testing 

B. Risk assessment 

C. Latency testing 

D. Bandwidth determination 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 34

Which of the following would be considered a cold site? 

A. A site that has air conditioning available, but no heat 

B. A duplicate site that has replication enabled 

C. A site that has telecommunications and network available 

D. A site that is completely functional and staffed 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 35

A new WAN connection was recently installed between the primary datacenter and secondary datacenter for disaster

recovery purposes. The network technician performed testing of the circuit and observed poor throughput performance.

Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? 

A. Latency 

B. NIC failure 

C. Caching 

D. Compression 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 36

Requiring all SaaS vendors to perform updates to systems within the customer\\’s datacenter is an example of which of

the following types of cloud delivery services? 

A. Off premise hosting 

B. On premise hosting 

C. Orchestration platforms 

D. Hybrid delivery models 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 37

A company has tasked an administrator with virtualizing the server farm and wants to adhere to the principle of n+1. The

administrator has analyzed the resource consumption of the current server farm and observes the following: 

5 application servers consuming 12 GB RAM each. 

4 web servers consuming 2 GB RAM each. 

10 terminal servers consuming 6 GB RAM each. 

Which of the following is the MINIMUM necessary to meet the requirements of the new host cluster? 

A. 1 host with 196GB RAM 

B. 2 hosts with 64GB RAM each 

C. 3 hosts with 128GB RAM each 

D. 4 hosts with 24GB RAM each 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 38

A technician would like to connect to a virtual server from inside the network, using a desktop computer. Which of the

following tools could the technician use? 

A. HTTP 

B. RDP 

C. IMAP 

D. SSL 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 39

An employee is asked to run an instance of a Linux OS while booted up in a Windows OS. Which of the following types

of virtualization would be used to meet this requirement? 

A. Type I 

B. Type II 

C. Bare Metal 

D. Native 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 40

A new network engineer logs into a router and discovers multiple and separate routing tables configured. This router

MOST likely has which of the following items configured? 

A. Supernetting 

B. VPN 

C. RIP 

D. VLAN 

Correct Answer: C

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The best CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-104 dumps exam questions and answers download free try from lead4pass. New CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-104 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. “CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] 2” is the name of CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI https://www.lead4pass.com/lx0-104.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real CompTIA exam. Useful latest CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-104 dumps pdf training resources and study guides free download, pass CompTIA LX0-104 exam test easily.

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Certifications: CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI
Exam Name: CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] 2
Exam Code: LX0-104
Total Questions: 120 Q&As

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New CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-104 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-40)

QUESTION 1
On a machine running several X servers, how are the different instances of the X11 server identified?
A. By a fixed UUID that is defined in the X11 configuration file.
B. By a unique IPv6 address from the fe80::/64 subnet.
C. By the name of the user that runs the X server like x11:bob.
D. By a device name like /dev/X11/xservers/1.
E. By a display name like:1.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
What is the main difference between the batch and at commands?
A. The batch command will run multiple times. The at command will only run once.
B. The commands of a batch job run sequentially one after another while the commands in at jobs may run in parallel.
C. The at command reads commands from standard input. The batch command requires a command line argument.
D. The at command e-mails results to the user. The batch command logs results to syslog.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following commands should be added to /etc/bash_profile in order to change the language of messages for an internationalized program to Portuguese (pt)?
A. export LANGUAGE=”pt”
B. export MESSAGE=”pt”
C. export UI_MESSAGES=”pt”
D. export LC_MESSAGES=”pt”
E. export ALL_MESSAGES=”pt”
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What is true regarding the time in a Linux system?
A. The BIOS clock of a computer always indicates the current local time and time zone.
B. Each application must convert the Unix time to the current time zone which is usually done by using standard libraries.
C. When the system is on the network, each query for the current time leads to a new network connection to a time server.
D. When the system time changes, running processes must be restarted in order to get the correct time.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is true regarding the file ~/.forward?
A. As it is owned by the MTA and not writable by the user, it must be edited using the editaliases command.
B. After editing ~/.forward the user must run newaliases to make the mail server aware of the changes.
C. Using ~/.forward, root may configure any email address whereas all other users may configure only their own addresses.
D. When configured correctly, ~/.forward can be used to forward each incoming mail to more than one other recipient.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements is valid in the file /etc/nsswitch.conf?
A. multi on
B. 192.168.168.4 dns-server
C. hosts: files dns
D. include /etc/nsswitch.d/
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following programs uses the hosts.allow file to perform its main task of checking for access control restrictions to system services?
A. tcpd
B. inetd
C. fingerd
D. mountd
E. xinetd
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
LX0-104 dumps What is the purpose of the xhost program?
A. Grant or revoke access to a X11 session.
B. Install all packages and video drivers required to run X11 on a host.
C. Start the X11 server and announce its availability within the local network.
D. Send informational messages to all users logged into a host using X11.
E. Display the MOTD and other important information when a user logs in via X11.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What is true about groups in a Linux system? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Each user may be a member of several groups. However, only one group is the user’s primary group.
B. Groups may have a password that allows users to join that group temporarily.
C. Each user can only be a member of one group at a time.
D. Group memberships are optional such that there may be users that do not belong to any group.
E. Groups can be nested meaning that one group can be a member of another group.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which file, when using Sendmail or a compatible MTA system, will allow a user to redirect all of their mail to another address and is configurable by the user themselves?
A. /etc/alias
B. /etc/mail/forwarders
C. ~/.alias
D. ~/.forward
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What entry can be added to the syslog.conf file to have all syslog messages generated by a system displayed on console 12?
A. *.* /dev/tty12
B. /var/log/messages | /dev/tty12
C. | /dev/tty12
D. syslog tty12
E. mail.* /dev/tty12
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following programs can be used to determine the routing path to a given destination?
A. dig
B. netstat
C. ping
D. route
E. traceroute
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 13
Which command is used to set restrictions on the size of a core file that is created for a user when a program crashes?
A. core
B. edquota
C. ulimit
D. quota
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
How do shadow passwords improve the password security in comparison to standard passwd passwords?
A. Shadow passwords are stored in plain text and can be checked for weak passwords.
B. Every shadow password is valid for 45 days and must be changed afterwards.
C. The system’s host key is used to strongly encrypt all shadow passwords.
D. Shadow passwords are always combined with a public key that has to match the user’s private key.
E. Regular users do not have access to the password hashes of shadow passwords.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
What output will the following command sequence produce?
echo ‘1 2 3 4 5 6’ | while read a b c; do echo result: $c $b $a; done
A. result: 3 4 5 6 2 1
B. result: 1 2 3 4 5 6
C. result: 6 5 4
D. result: 6 5 4 3 2 1
E. result: 3 2 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which of the following are tasks handled by a display manager like XDM or KDM? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Start and prepare the desktop environment for the user.
B. Configure additional devices like new monitors or projectors when they are attached.
C. Handle the login of a user.
D. Lock the screen when the user was inactive for a configurable amount of time.
E. Create an X11 configuration file for the current graphic devices and monitors.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
Which of the following files assigns a user to its primary group?
A. /etc/pgroup
B. /etc/shadow
C. /etc/group
D. /etc/passwd
E. /etc/gshadow
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following is a legacy program provided by CUPS for sending files to the printer queues on the command line?
A. lpd
B. lpp
C. lpq
D. lpr
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
When issuing the command ifconfig eth0 192.168.1.20/24 up, which of the following happens? LX0-104 dumps (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. The address 192.168.1.20 is associated with the interface eth0.
B. A network route to 192.168.1.0 with the netmask 255.255.255.0 pointing directly to eth0 is created.
C. 192.168.1.1 is probed for router functionality and, in case of success, it is added to the list of default routers.
D. The addresses from 192.168.1.20 to 192.168.1.24 are activated on the interface eth0.
E. If eth0 was configured with a previous IP address, it is retained in addition to adding the new address.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
Which of the following tools used for DNS debugging, reports not only the response from the name server but also details about the query?
A. dnsq
B. dig
C. hostname
D. dnslookup
E. zoneinfo
Correct Answer: B

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[New Version] Latest SASInstitute A00-211 Dumps Exam Training Resources And Youtube Demo Free Update

High quality SASInstitute SAS Institute Systems Certification A00-211 dumps pdf training resources and dumps vce youtube update free demo. Lead4pass SASInstitute A00-211 dumps exam questions and answers are updated (218 Q&As) are verified by experts. “SAS Base Programming for SAS 9” is the name of SASInstitute https://www.lead4pass.com/a00-211.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real Cisco exam. Prepare for SASInstitute A00-211 exam with best SASInstitute SAS Institute Systems Certification A00-211 dumps pdf practice files and study guides free try, pass SASInstitute A00-211 exam test easily.

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Vendor: SASInstitute
Certifications: SAS Institute Systems Certification
Exam Name: SAS Base Programming for SAS 9
Exam Code: A00-211
Total Questions: 218 Q&As
A00-211 dumps
QUESTION 1
Consider the following data step:
A00-211 dumps
The computed variables City and State have their values assigned using two different methods, a RETAIN statement and an Assignment statement. Which statement regarding this program is true?
A. The RETAIN statement is fine, but the value of City will be truncated to 8 bytes as the LENGTH statement has been omitted.
B. Both the RETAIN and assignment statement are being used to initialize new variables and are equally efficient. Method used is a matter of programmer preference.
C. The assignment statement is fine, but the value of City will be truncated to 8 bytes as the LENGTH statement has been omitted.
D. City’s value will be assigned one time, State’s value 5 times.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.new;
length word $7;
amount = 7;
if amount = 5 then word = ‘CAT’;
else if amount = 7 then word = ‘DOG’;
else word = ‘NONE!!!’;
amount = 5;
run;
Which one of the following represents the values of the AMOUNT and WORD variables?
A. amount word
5 DOG
B. amount word
5 CAT
C. amount word
7 DOG
D. amount word
7 ‘ ‘ (missing character value)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.pieces;
do while (n lt 6);
n + 1;
end;
run;
A00-211 dumps Which one of the following is the value of the variable N in the output data set?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.test;
Title = ‘A Tale of Two Cities, Charles J. Dickens’;
Word = scan(title,3,’ ,’);
run;
Which one of the following is the value of the variable WORD in the output data set?
A. T
B. of
C. Dickens
D. ‘ ‘ (missing character value)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.test;
First = ‘Ipswich, England’;
City_Country = substr(First,1,7)!!’, ‘!!’England’;
run;
Which one of the following is the length of the variable CITY_COUNTRY in the output data set?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 17
D. 25
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which one of the following SAS statements renames two variables?
A. set work.dept1
work.dept2(rename = (jcode = jobcode)
(sal = salary));
B. set work.dept1
work.dept2(rename = (jcode = jobcode
sal = salary));
C. set work.dept1
work.dept2(rename = jcode = jobcode
sal = salary);
D. set work.dept1
work.dept2(rename = (jcode jobcode)
(sal salary));
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
The SAS data set WORK.AWARDS is listed below:
fname points
Amy 2
Amy 1
Gerard 3
Wang 3
Wang 1
Wang 2
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sort data = work.awards;
by descending fname points;
run;
Which one of the following represents how the observations are sorted?
A. Wang 3
Gerard 3
Wang 2
Amy 2
Wang 1
Amy 1
B. Wang 3
Wang 2
Wang 1
Gerard 3
Amy 2
Amy 1
C. Wang 3
Wang 1
Wang 2
Gerard 3
Amy 2
Amy 1
D. Wang 1
Wang 2
Wang 3
Gerard 3
Amy 1
Amy 2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A raw data file is listed below:
——–10——-20——-30
John McCloskey 35 71
June Rosesette 10 43
Tineke Jones 9 37
The following SAS program is submitted using the raw data file as input:
data work.homework;
infile ‘file-specification’;
input name $ age height;
if age LE 10;
run;
How many observations will the WORK.HOMEWORK data set contain?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 3
D. No data set is created as the program fails to execute due to errors.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.report;
set work.sales_info;
if qtr(sales_date) ge 3;
run;
The SAS data set WORK.SALES_INFO has one observation for each month in the year 2000 and the
variable SALES_DATE which contains a SAS date value for each of the twelve months. A00-211 dumps
How many of the original twelve observations in WORK.SALES_INFO are written to the WORK.REPORT
data set?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
The following SAS SORT procedure step generates an output data set:
proc sort data = sasuser.houses out = report;
by style;
run;
In which library is the output data set stored?
A. WORK
B. REPORT.
C. HOUSES
D. SASUSER
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
The following SAS program is submitted and reads 100 records from a raw data file:
data work.total;
infile ‘file-specification’ end = eof;
input name $ salary;
totsal + salary;
run;
Which one of the following IF statements writes the last observation to the output data set?
A. if end = 0;
B. if eof = 0;
C. if end = 1;
D. if eof = 1;
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which one of the following is true when SAS encounters a data error in a DATA step?
A. The DATA step stops executing at the point of the error, and no SAS data set is created.
B. A note is written to the SAS log explaining the error, and the DATA step continues to execute.
C. A note appears in the SAS log that the incorrect data record was saved to a separate SAS file for further examination.
D. The DATA step stops executing at the point of the error, and the resulting DATA set contains observations up to that point.
Correct Answer: B

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Free latest CompTIA CS0-001 exam dumps, valid exam question channel

What is the best way to pass the CompTIA CySA+ CS0-001 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass CompTIA expert.) You can get free CompTIA CS0-001 exam practice test questions here.
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CompTIA CS0-001 Exam Video

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CySA+ (Plus) Cybersecurity Analyst Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications:https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

The CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification verifies that successful candidates have the knowledge and skills required to configure and use threat detection tools, perform data analysis and interpret the results to identify vulnerabilities, threats, and risks to an organization, with the end goal of securing and protecting applications and systems within an organization.

CompTIA CySA+ is for IT professionals looking to gain the following security analyst skills:

  • Perform data analysis and interpret the results to identify vulnerabilities, threats, and risks to an organization.
  • Configure and use threat-detection tools.
  • Secure and protect applications and systems within an organization.

Latest updates CompTIA CS0-001 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Malware is suspected on a server in the environment. The analyst is provided with the output of commands from servers
in the environment and needs to review all output files in order to determine which process running on one of the
servers
may be malware. Servers 1, 2 and 4 are clickable. Select the Server which hosts the malware, and select the process
which hosts this malware.
Instructions:
If any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset button. When you have
completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the
Next button to continue.
Hot Area:lead4pass cs0-001 exam question q1

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QUESTION 2
A security analyst is performing a review of Active Directory and discovers two new user accounts in the accounting
department. Neither of the users has elevated permissions, but accounts in the group are given access to the
company\\’s sensitive financial management application by default. Which of the following is the BEST course of
action?
A. Follow the incident response plan for the introduction of new accounts
B. Disable the user accounts
C. Remove the accounts\\’ access privileges to the sensitive application
D. Monitor the outbound traffic from the application for signs of data exfiltration
E. Confirm the accounts are valid and ensure role-based permissions are appropriate
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
A cybersecurity analyst is currently investigating a server outage. The analyst has discovered the following value was
entered for the username: 0xbfff601a. Which of the following attacks may be occurring?
A. Buffer overflow attack
B. Man-in-the-middle attack
C. Smurf attack
D. Format string attack
E. Denial of service attack
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
While preparing for a third-party audit, the vice president of risk management and the vice president of information
technology have stipulated that the vendor may not use offensive software during the audit. This is an example of:
A. organizational control.
B. service-level agreement.
C. rules of engagement.
D. risk appetite
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A cybersecurity analyst has received an alert that well-known “call home” messages are continuously observed by
network sensors at the network boundary. The proxy firewall successfully drops the messages. After determining the
alert was a true positive, which of the following represents the MOST likely cause?
A. Attackers are running reconnaissance on company resources.
B. An outside command and control system is attempting to reach an infected system.
C. An insider is trying to exfiltrate information to a remote network.
D. Malware is running on a company system.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
An organization uses Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) scores to prioritize remediation of vulnerabilities.
Management wants to modify the priorities based on a difficulty factor so that vulnerabilities with lower CVSS scores
may get a higher priority if they are easier to implement with less risk to system functionality. Management also wants to
quantify the priority.
Which of the following would achieve management\\’s objective?
A. (CVSS Score) * Difficulty = Priority Where Difficulty is a range from 0.1 to 1.0 with 1.0 being easiest and lowest risk to
implement
B. (CVSS Score) * Difficulty = Priority Where Difficulty is a range from 1 to 5 with 1 being easiest and lowest risk to
implement
C. (CVSS Score) / Difficulty = Priority Where Difficulty is a range from 1 to 10 with 10 being easiest and lowest risk to
implement
D. ((CVSS Score) * 2) / Difficulty = Priority Where CVSS Score is weighted and Difficulty is a range from 1 to 5 with 5
being easiest and lowest risk to implement
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A company has decided to process credit card transactions directly. Which of the following would meet the requirements
for scanning this type of data?
A. Quarterly
B. Yearly
C. Bi-annually
D. Monthly
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A security analyst suspects that a workstation may be beaconing to a command and control server. You must inspect
the logs from the company’s web proxy server and the firewall to determine the best course of action to take in order to
neutralize the threat with minimum impact to the organization.
Instructions:
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset button. When you
have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select
the
Next button to continue.
Hot Area:

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QUESTION 9
During a tabletop exercise, it is determined that a security analyst is required to ensure patching and scan reports are
available during an incident, as well as documentation of all critical systems. To which of the following stakeholders
should the analyst provide the reports?
A. Management
B. Affected vendors
C. Security operations
D. Legal
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An analyst reviews a recent report of vulnerabilities on a company\\’s financial application server. Which of the following
should the analyst rate as being of the HIGHEST importance to the company\\’s environment?
A. Banner grabbing
B. Remote code execution
C. SQL injection
D. Use of old encryption algorithms
E. Susceptibility to XSS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Joe, an analyst, has received notice that a vendor who is coming in for a presentation will require access to a server
outside the network. Currently, users are only able to access remote sites through a VPN connection. Which of the
following should Joe use to BEST accommodate the vendor?
A. Allow incoming IPSec traffic into the vendor\\’s IP address.
B. Set up a VPN account for the vendor, allowing access to the remote site.
C. Turn off the firewall while the vendor is in the office, allowing access to the remote site.
D. Write a firewall rule to allow the vendor to have access to the remote site.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A cybersecurity analyst is hired to review the security measures implemented within the domain controllers of a
company. Upon review, the cybersecurity analyst notices a brute force attack can be launched against domain
controllers that run on a Windows platform. The first remediation step implemented by the cybersecurity analyst is to
make the account passwords more complex. Which of the following is the NEXT remediation step the cybersecurity
analyst needs to implement?
A. Disable the ability to store a LAN manager hash.
B. Deploy a vulnerability scanner tool.
C. Install a different antivirus software.
D. Perform more frequent port scanning.
E. Move administrator accounts to a new security group.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 13
An analyst wants to use a command line tool to identify open ports and running services on a host along with the
application that is associated with those services and port. Which of the following should the analyst use?
A. Wireshark
B. Qualys
C. netstat
D. nmap
E. ping
Correct Answer: D

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Hottest CompTIA SK0-004 Dumps Exam Practice Questions Free download

QUESTION 1
A technician would like to ensure that when users connect to a web server in a server CompTIA sk0-004 dumps farm, they connect to the server with the lowest CPU utilization. Which of the following technologies would accomplish this?
A. Load balancing
B. High availability
C. Virtual machine
D. Reverse proxy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Changing the boot order of devices can be configured from which of the following?
A. DIP switches
B. BIOS
C. Chipset
D. Control Panel
Correct Answer: B
sk0-004
QUESTION 3
Which of the SK0-004 following is an advantage of using non-ECC memory over ECC memory?
A. ECC is faster than non-ECC
B. Non-ECC is faster than ECC
C. Non-ECC is more expensive than ECC
D. Non-ECC checks for memory errors
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Before installing a new device, a technician checks to make sure the device is on the HCL. Which of the following is the advantage of having an HCL device?
A. It is supported by other vendors
B. Increases performance
C. Decreases cost
D. Meets vendor standards
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
When building a computer with a 32 bit processor, which of the SK0-004 pdf following is the MAXIMUM amount of memory supported?
A. 1GB
B. 2GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A technician has installed an additional NIC on a server. Which of the following can now be setup?
A. Teaming
B. VLANs
C. Port forwarding
D. Full duplex
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A technician is setting up a network and wants to automatically assign IP addresses. Which of the following will need to be configured to automatically assign IP addresses?
A. WINS
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. NTP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A technician is building a Windows 2008 server and SK0-004 has installed a motherboard, processor, and power supply. Which of the following optical drives should the technician install?
A. Flash Drive
B. DVD-RW
C. CD-ROM
D. SSD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Typically, warranty information can be found on a vendor’s website by looking up which of the following?
A. Original hardware configuration
B. Service manual
C. Service tag
D. Model number
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
When purchasing a UPS for SK0-004 vce a server room, which of the following are important factors to consider? (Select TWO).
A. Network card configuration
B. Remote access procedures
C. Estimated runtime
D. Maximum load
E. Power cord length
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
A new server must be configured to provide fault tolerant connectivity to the SK0-004 DMZ and the backend database. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective way to accomplish this?
A. A total of six NICs: two pairs of teamed NICs for the DMZ and two NICs for the backend database.
B. One NIC can be configured with VLANs for the DMZ and backend database.
C. A total of eight NICs to be teamed with the appropriate VLANs configured for the DMZ and backend database.
D. A total of four NICs: two NICs for the DMZ and two NICs for the backend database.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is TRUE about a caching name server? (Select TWO).
A. They must have a trusted SSL certificate
B. They can be authoritative
C. They cannot be load-balanced
D. They can be recursive
E. They require DHCP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
A technician needs to deploy a new Internet facing web server and internal database server. The web server will use the database backend to SK0-004 exam retrieve shopping cart information. Which of the following configuration utilizes the LEAST resources?
A. Both servers will be virtualized on the same host server. The web server will be configured with an Internet facing NIC connected to the host’s hardware NIC and a backend NIC connected to a virtual switch. The database server NIC will be connected to the same virtual switch.
B. The database server will be created on the existing virtual farm and configured with one physical NIC. The web server will be installed on new hardware and will utilize two physical NICs to separate backend traffic from frontend Internet communication.
C. The web server will be created on the existing virtual farm and configured with two physical NICs, one NIC for backend and one for backend communication. The database server will be installed on new hardware to ensure maximum performance.
D. Both servers will be virtualized on a pair of redundant host servers. Both the web server and the database server will share the same hardware resources. The web server will be configured with one NIC for both frontend and backend communication and the databases server will also have one NIC.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A technician has fixed a reported issue with a heavily used software program and users have verified that the program is working correctly. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Document the process and update the baseline.
B. Test the theory of probable cause and verify with the software vendor.
C. Establish a plan of action to be included in the business impact analysis.
D. Implement the software manufacturer workaround.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
After installing a new hard drive into a server for the sk0-004 purpose of mirroring the data from the first drive to the second one, the server displays an “operating system not found” error. Which of the following should the technician do to boot the server from the original drive?
A. Replace the second drive with a hot swappable one.
B. Swap the drive boot order in the BIOS.
C. Make the second disk active under the disk management tool.
D. Rebuild the array using the hardware RAID tool at boot.
Correct Answer: B

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Update Free IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 Exam Test Practice Questions Online

Vendor: IIA
Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part2
Exam Name: Certified Internal Auditor – Part 2, Conducting the Internal Audit Engagement
Version: Demo

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QUESTION 1
Which of the following would be a red flag that indicates the possibility of inventory fraud?
I. The controller has assumed responsibility for approving all payments to IIA-CIA-Part2 certain vendors.
II. The controller has continuously delayed installation of a new accounts payable system, despite a corporate directive to implement it.
III. Sales commissions are not consistent with the organization’s increased levels of sales.
IV.Payments to certain vendors are supported by copies of receiving memos, rather than originals.
A.I and II only
B.II and III only
C.I, II, and IV only
D.I, III, and IV only
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
During an operational audit of a chain of pizza delivery stores, an auditor determined that cold pizzas were causing customer dissatisfaction. A review of oven calibration records for the IIA-CIA-Part2 vce last six months revealed that adjustments were made on over 40 percent of the ovens. Based on this, the auditor:
A. Has enough evidence to conclude that improperly functioning ovens are the cause.
B. Needs to conduct further inquiries and reviews to determine the impact of the oven variations on the pizza temperature.
C. Has enough evidence to recommend the replacement of some of the ovens.
D. Must search for another cause since approximately 60 percent of the ovens did not require adjustment.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
When assessing the IIA-CIA-Part2 risk associated with an activity, an internal auditor should:
A. Determine how the risk should best be managed.
B. Provide assurance on the management of the risk.
C. Modify the risk management process based on risk exposures.
D. Design controls to mitigate the identified risks.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following procedures would provide the best evidence of the IIA-CIA-Part2 effectiveness of a credit-granting function?
A. Observe the process.
B. Review the trend in receivables write-offs.
C. Ask the credit manager about the effectiveness of the function.
D. Check for evidence of credit approval on a sample of customer orders.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
The most effective way for internal auditors to IIA-CIA-Part2 dumps enhance the reliability of computerized financial and operating information is by:
A. Determining if controls over record keeping and reporting are adequate and effective.
B. Reviewing data provided by information systems to test compliance with external requirements.
C. Determining if information systems provide management with timely information.
D. Determining if information systems provide complete information.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following situations might allow an employee to steal checks sent to IIA-CIA-Part2 an organization and subsequently cash them?
A. Checks are not restrictively endorsed when received.
B. Only one signature is required on the organization’s checks.
C. One employee handles both accounts receivable and purchase orders.
D. One employee handles both cash deposits and accounts payable.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An internal auditor is assigned to conduct an audit of security for a local area network (LAN) in the finance department of the organization. Investment decisions, including the use of hedging strategies and financial derivatives, use data and financial models which run on the LAN. The LAN is also used to download data from the IIA-CIA-Part2 mainframe to assist in decisions. Which of the following should be considered outside the scope of this security audit engagement?
A. Investigation of the physical security over access to the components of the LAN.
B. The ability of the LAN application to identify data items at the field or record level and implement user access security at that level.
C. Interviews with users to determine their assessment of the level of security in the system and the vulnerability of the system to compromise.
D. The level of security of other LANs in the company which also utilize sensitive data.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An audit of management’s quality program includes testing the IIA-CIA-Part2 accuracy of the cost-of-quality reports provided to management. Which of the following internal control objectives is the focus of this testing?
A. To ensure compliance with policies, plans, procedures, laws, and regulations.
B. To ensure the accomplishment of established objectives and goals for operations or programs.
C. To ensure the reliability and integrity of information.
D. To ensure the economical and efficient use of resources.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
When internal auditors provide consulting services, the IIA-CIA-Part2 pdf scope of the engagement is primarily determined by:
A. Internal auditing standards.
B. The audit engagement team.
C. The engagement client.
D. The internal audit activity’s charter.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A manufacturing process could create hazardous waste at several production stages, from raw materials handling to finished goods storage. If the IIA-CIA-Part2 objective of a pollution prevention audit engagement is to identify opportunities for minimizing waste, in what order should the following opportunities be considered?
I. Recycling and reuse.
II. Elimination at the source.
III. Energy conservation.
IV.Recovery as a usable product Treatment.
A.V, II, IV, I, III.
B.IV, II, I, III, V.
C.I, III, IV, II, V.
D.III, IV, II, V, I.
Correct Answer: B

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Reference: https://na.theiia.org/certification/CIA-Certification/Pages/CIA-2013-Exam-Syllabus-Part-2.aspx

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