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Latest effective CompTIA Cloud Essentials CV0-001 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1

Which of the following is a subcomponent of a virtual machine? 

A. Virtual switch 

B. Virtual HBA 

C. Virtual shield 

D. Virtual OS 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 2

A company has virtualized all of their servers on one physical server located on the company\\’s first floor datacenter.

The company also uses security software from a third-party cloud vendor as part of a SaaS contract. The overall cloud

network model for this company\\’s network is BEST described by which of the following? 

A. Hybrid 

B. Offsite public 

C. On-site private 

D. Community 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 3

Which of the following cloud delivery models is deployed over a company intranet or company- hosted datacenter? 

A. Private cloud 

B. Hybrid cloud 

C. Community cloud 

D. Public cloud 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 4

Which of the following is true about a Type II hypervisor? 

A. It requires a primary hypervisor to function properly. 

B. It implements stronger security controls than a Type I supervisor at the same patch level. 

C. It provides slower performance than a Type I hypervisor installed on the same hardware. 

D. It provides direct hardware access through the use of specialized drivers. 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 5

A company has just established a new branch office that needs to connect back to centrally hosted applications for day

to day operations. The branch office has noted that access to many company services are slow and causing a drop in

productivity. The company IT department has investigated a plan to improve performance across the link to the branch

office without having to pay for more bandwidth from the Internet Service Provider. This plan includes hardware that

after installation will allow for much faster access to day to day business applications. Which of the following terms

BEST describes the action taken by the IT department? 

A. LAN optimization 

B. WAN optimization 

C. Load balancing 

D. Bandwidth compression 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 6

A company uses a third-party utility to protect critical virtual machines. The third party uses deduplication to compress

workloads without degrading performance. Which of the following should be tested to ensure appropriate network

support? 

A. Bandwidth 

B. Trunking 

C. Caching 

D. Compression 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 7

An administrator deployed a DaaS cloud delivery model for a financial institution and implemented a data encryption

technology using AES cryptography. Which of the following should the administrator implement NEXT? 

A. Access controls 

B. RC5 

C. SSL 

D. Zoning 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 8

Which of the following will explain why only some of the CPU cycles are available to a virtualized server using two

virtualized processors? 

A. Extra processing is needed to store encryption keys used for secure transmission between the server and the

network. 

B. Additional processing is used to run ports and services not turned off through the process of server hardening. 

C. Some processing is required for operational overhead on the processor and between the physical and virtualized

processors. 

D. Significant processing is used to create and maintain the cache on multi-core processors. 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 9

An administrator adds a new virtualization host to an existing cluster but is unable to move existing VMs to the new host.

Which of the following is MOST likely to be a reason for the VM mobility failure? 

A. There are too many connections to the iSCSI LUN. 

B. Minimum memory configuration has not been met in the system. 

C. The host has not been added to the resource pool. 

D. Different CPU architectures are being used. 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 10

Which of the following types of virtual components performs Layer 3 functions between networks in a virtualized

environment? 

A. Virtual switch 

B. Virtual router 

C. Virtual NIC 

D. Virtual HBA 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 11

An administrator has enabled NPIV and has configured the SAN for SAN boot; however, SAN boot fails intermittently.

Which of the following, if configured incorrectly, could cause the issue? 

A. LUN Masking 

B. Storage cluster 

C. Zoning 

D. WWPN 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 12

The IT department of a company has received many calls concerning slow response time from a common application.

The administrator can develop a solution after diagnosing the symptoms by using: 

A. New virtual resources. 

B. Customer surveys. 

C. Performance and monitoring tools. 

D. Scheduled maintenance time. 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 13

Which of the following would be used to mitigate the risk of an unauthorized party authenticating into the network? 

A. Install a software-based firewall 

B. Establish a baseline and review logs daily 

C. Install antivirus software 

D. Disable the administrator account 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 14

An administrator is responsible for maintenance and support of servers in the cloud environment. There are over 500

virtual servers spanning across ten physical hosts. The administrator deploys a new application server. The

administrator allocated the appropriate virtual resources for the application. Users report slow response after the new

server was deployed. Which of the following is the cause of this issue? 

A. Storage allocation on the guest OS 

B. Resource pooling mis-configuration 

C. Application licensing expiration 

D. Data segregation on the host OS 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 15

A new self-service provisioning system has been deployed to serve the company\\’s rapid VM provisioning needs. Since

the website is in the DMZ, HTTPS is required, but company policy states that SSL certificates can not terminate at the

server. The company also has a requirement that the web portal be redundant while providing session state. Which of

the following availability technologies can be used to meet the company\\’s requirements? 

A. Failover 

B. Multipathing 

C. Load balancing 

D. Failback 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 16

Which of the following events will force a storage migration in a virtual environment? 

A. Reaching the end of the CPU hardware lifecycle 

B. Reaching the end of the NIC hardware lifecycle 

C. Reaching the end of the SAN hardware lifecycle 

D. Reaching the end of the RAM hardware lifecycle 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 17

Which of the following solutions would an administrator deploy to meet high availability requirements? 

A. Implement communication delivery services. 

B. Implement fault tolerant systems. 

C. Implement infrastructure delivery services. 

D. Implement application delivery services. 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 18

The performance logs on a virtualization server show a large number of pages being written to disk at a high rate. Which

of the following should the technician do? 

A. Increase the amount of swap space on the disk 

B. Increase the amount of physical memory 

C. Install and provision additional disk space 

D. Allocate additional CPU power to the guests 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 19

In which of the following situations would a network administrator optimize a company\\’s WAN? 

A. High amounts of packet loss on a switch port 

B. CPU utilization on a switch is at 95% 

C. Installed new local application on a private network 

D. Contracted with a SaaS provider to provide a new application 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 20

A network administrator has been asked to implement a security solution to protect a company\\’s internal network from

external threats on the Internet. Which of the following technologies is the administrator MOST likely to use? 

A. IDS 

B. Proxy 

C. DMZ 

D. Firewall 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 21

Which of the following is the BEST approach to re-architect a server farm running transport encryption termination on

web servers when HA is an overall major requirement? 

A. Implement an HTTP proxy on the DMZ. 

B. Implement a traffic manager with ports 80 and 443 enabled. 

C. Implement a load balancer with port SSL enabled. 

D. Implement a traffic manager with TCP and UDP enabled. 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 22

Which of the following provides a secure tunnel through the Internet? 

A. DMZ 

B. IDS 

C. ACL 

D. VPN 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 23

New servers were purchased specifically for virtualization capabilities. However, the hypervisor of choice cannot find

compatible processors on the new servers. Which of the following would a system administrator MOST likely need to

configure to enable virtualization features for these systems? 

A. IPMI 

B. RAM 

C. BIOS 

D. HBAs 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 24

A small business is moving ten physical servers to the cloud. Which of the following should the cloud provider

implement to ensure that all ten servers can dynamically share memory resources with other tenants as needed while

not interfering with the other tenants? 

A. Soft limits 

B. Load balancing 

C. Resource pooling 

D. Caching 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 25

A programmer removes OS software from a laptop during development of a new prototype for the company. After the

code is promoted from development to QA, none of the QA testers can get the application to work. Which of the

following is MOST likely the cause of the application not working properly in QA? 

A. QA systems require a reboot after a new application is installed 

B. Programmer did not compile the code properly 

C. Programmer put the source code in repository without any validations 

D. QA systems are missing patches 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 26

Which of the following is a MINIMUM requirement for VM online migration? 

A. Same CPU family between source and target hosts. 

B. Same network equipment between source and target hosts. 

C. Same hardware vendor for the datacenter. 

D. Same hypervisor versions between source and target hosts. 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 27

An administrator needs to add more guests in a virtual environment. Which of the following MUST the administrator take

into account before adding additional VMs to a host? (Select TWO). 

A. Amount of RAM 

B. Number of virtual CPUs 

C. Number of CPU cores 

D. Number of power supplies 

E. Number of network cards 

Correct Answer: AC 

QUESTION 28

A technician wants to remotely gather a list of all the software running on the client PCs throughout the organization.

Which of the following should be used to gather this information? 

A. WMI 

B. SQL 

C. Syslog 

D. SNMP 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 29

A system administrator identified an issue on a critical server that is hosted in the cloud. The user community is affected

by this issue, but is still able to work. A reboot is needed to rectify this issue. Which of the following steps should the

administrator do FIRST to resolve this issue? 

A. Contact the user community 

B. Establish a back-out plan 

C. Enter a change request 

D. Reboot the server 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 30

A critical hypervisor security patch has been released and needs to be rolled out as soon as possible. Which of the

following steps can be taken to minimize downtime for all guest VMs currently running? 

A. In the next scheduled maintenance window, apply patch, reboot host, and wait for all VMs to come back online. 

B. In the next scheduled maintenance window, migrate VMs to another host. Remove host from any availability clusters,

patch host, reboot host, and place host back into availability cluster. 

C. In the next scheduled maintenance window, shut down all VMs, apply patch, reboot host, and wait for all VMs to

come back online. 

D. In the next scheduled maintenance window, migrate VMs to another host. Remove host from any availability clusters,

unplug network cables from host, patch host, reboot host, reconnect network cables, and place host back into

availability cluster. 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 31

Which of the following routine practices can help protect required and running services during an attack? 

A. Antivirus software 

B. Disabling unneeded ports 

C. SSL 

D. Patching 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 32

Students in a virtual lab must be able to upload and download homework assignments from personal external storage

devices to their virtual desktops. Which of the following should the lab administrator implement to allow students to

upload files? 

A. Resource pooling 

B. Secure FTP 

C. Storage quotas 

D. Port mapping 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 33

Which of the following tests would be MOST appropriate when determining the need for patches and updates to servers

in the datacenter? 

A. Penetration testing 

B. Risk assessment 

C. Latency testing 

D. Bandwidth determination 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 34

Which of the following would be considered a cold site? 

A. A site that has air conditioning available, but no heat 

B. A duplicate site that has replication enabled 

C. A site that has telecommunications and network available 

D. A site that is completely functional and staffed 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 35

A new WAN connection was recently installed between the primary datacenter and secondary datacenter for disaster

recovery purposes. The network technician performed testing of the circuit and observed poor throughput performance.

Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? 

A. Latency 

B. NIC failure 

C. Caching 

D. Compression 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 36

Requiring all SaaS vendors to perform updates to systems within the customer\\’s datacenter is an example of which of

the following types of cloud delivery services? 

A. Off premise hosting 

B. On premise hosting 

C. Orchestration platforms 

D. Hybrid delivery models 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 37

A company has tasked an administrator with virtualizing the server farm and wants to adhere to the principle of n+1. The

administrator has analyzed the resource consumption of the current server farm and observes the following: 

5 application servers consuming 12 GB RAM each. 

4 web servers consuming 2 GB RAM each. 

10 terminal servers consuming 6 GB RAM each. 

Which of the following is the MINIMUM necessary to meet the requirements of the new host cluster? 

A. 1 host with 196GB RAM 

B. 2 hosts with 64GB RAM each 

C. 3 hosts with 128GB RAM each 

D. 4 hosts with 24GB RAM each 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 38

A technician would like to connect to a virtual server from inside the network, using a desktop computer. Which of the

following tools could the technician use? 

A. HTTP 

B. RDP 

C. IMAP 

D. SSL 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 39

An employee is asked to run an instance of a Linux OS while booted up in a Windows OS. Which of the following types

of virtualization would be used to meet this requirement? 

A. Type I 

B. Type II 

C. Bare Metal 

D. Native 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 40

A new network engineer logs into a router and discovers multiple and separate routing tables configured. This router

MOST likely has which of the following items configured? 

A. Supernetting 

B. VPN 

C. RIP 

D. VLAN 

Correct Answer: C

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Certifications: CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI
Exam Name: CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] 2
Exam Code: LX0-104
Total Questions: 120 Q&As

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New CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-104 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-40)

QUESTION 1
On a machine running several X servers, how are the different instances of the X11 server identified?
A. By a fixed UUID that is defined in the X11 configuration file.
B. By a unique IPv6 address from the fe80::/64 subnet.
C. By the name of the user that runs the X server like x11:bob.
D. By a device name like /dev/X11/xservers/1.
E. By a display name like:1.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 2
What is the main difference between the batch and at commands?
A. The batch command will run multiple times. The at command will only run once.
B. The commands of a batch job run sequentially one after another while the commands in at jobs may run in parallel.
C. The at command reads commands from standard input. The batch command requires a command line argument.
D. The at command e-mails results to the user. The batch command logs results to syslog.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
Which of the following commands should be added to /etc/bash_profile in order to change the language of messages for an internationalized program to Portuguese (pt)?
A. export LANGUAGE=”pt”
B. export MESSAGE=”pt”
C. export UI_MESSAGES=”pt”
D. export LC_MESSAGES=”pt”
E. export ALL_MESSAGES=”pt”
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
What is true regarding the time in a Linux system?
A. The BIOS clock of a computer always indicates the current local time and time zone.
B. Each application must convert the Unix time to the current time zone which is usually done by using standard libraries.
C. When the system is on the network, each query for the current time leads to a new network connection to a time server.
D. When the system time changes, running processes must be restarted in order to get the correct time.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
What is true regarding the file ~/.forward?
A. As it is owned by the MTA and not writable by the user, it must be edited using the editaliases command.
B. After editing ~/.forward the user must run newaliases to make the mail server aware of the changes.
C. Using ~/.forward, root may configure any email address whereas all other users may configure only their own addresses.
D. When configured correctly, ~/.forward can be used to forward each incoming mail to more than one other recipient.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which of the following statements is valid in the file /etc/nsswitch.conf?
A. multi on
B. 192.168.168.4 dns-server
C. hosts: files dns
D. include /etc/nsswitch.d/
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which of the following programs uses the hosts.allow file to perform its main task of checking for access control restrictions to system services?
A. tcpd
B. inetd
C. fingerd
D. mountd
E. xinetd
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
LX0-104 dumps What is the purpose of the xhost program?
A. Grant or revoke access to a X11 session.
B. Install all packages and video drivers required to run X11 on a host.
C. Start the X11 server and announce its availability within the local network.
D. Send informational messages to all users logged into a host using X11.
E. Display the MOTD and other important information when a user logs in via X11.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
What is true about groups in a Linux system? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Each user may be a member of several groups. However, only one group is the user’s primary group.
B. Groups may have a password that allows users to join that group temporarily.
C. Each user can only be a member of one group at a time.
D. Group memberships are optional such that there may be users that do not belong to any group.
E. Groups can be nested meaning that one group can be a member of another group.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 10
Which file, when using Sendmail or a compatible MTA system, will allow a user to redirect all of their mail to another address and is configurable by the user themselves?
A. /etc/alias
B. /etc/mail/forwarders
C. ~/.alias
D. ~/.forward
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 11
What entry can be added to the syslog.conf file to have all syslog messages generated by a system displayed on console 12?
A. *.* /dev/tty12
B. /var/log/messages | /dev/tty12
C. | /dev/tty12
D. syslog tty12
E. mail.* /dev/tty12
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 12
Which of the following programs can be used to determine the routing path to a given destination?
A. dig
B. netstat
C. ping
D. route
E. traceroute
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 13
Which command is used to set restrictions on the size of a core file that is created for a user when a program crashes?
A. core
B. edquota
C. ulimit
D. quota
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 14
How do shadow passwords improve the password security in comparison to standard passwd passwords?
A. Shadow passwords are stored in plain text and can be checked for weak passwords.
B. Every shadow password is valid for 45 days and must be changed afterwards.
C. The system’s host key is used to strongly encrypt all shadow passwords.
D. Shadow passwords are always combined with a public key that has to match the user’s private key.
E. Regular users do not have access to the password hashes of shadow passwords.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
What output will the following command sequence produce?
echo ‘1 2 3 4 5 6’ | while read a b c; do echo result: $c $b $a; done
A. result: 3 4 5 6 2 1
B. result: 1 2 3 4 5 6
C. result: 6 5 4
D. result: 6 5 4 3 2 1
E. result: 3 2 1
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 16
Which of the following are tasks handled by a display manager like XDM or KDM? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Start and prepare the desktop environment for the user.
B. Configure additional devices like new monitors or projectors when they are attached.
C. Handle the login of a user.
D. Lock the screen when the user was inactive for a configurable amount of time.
E. Create an X11 configuration file for the current graphic devices and monitors.
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 17
Which of the following files assigns a user to its primary group?
A. /etc/pgroup
B. /etc/shadow
C. /etc/group
D. /etc/passwd
E. /etc/gshadow
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 18
Which of the following is a legacy program provided by CUPS for sending files to the printer queues on the command line?
A. lpd
B. lpp
C. lpq
D. lpr
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 19
When issuing the command ifconfig eth0 192.168.1.20/24 up, which of the following happens? LX0-104 dumps (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. The address 192.168.1.20 is associated with the interface eth0.
B. A network route to 192.168.1.0 with the netmask 255.255.255.0 pointing directly to eth0 is created.
C. 192.168.1.1 is probed for router functionality and, in case of success, it is added to the list of default routers.
D. The addresses from 192.168.1.20 to 192.168.1.24 are activated on the interface eth0.
E. If eth0 was configured with a previous IP address, it is retained in addition to adding the new address.
Correct Answer: AB

QUESTION 20
Which of the following tools used for DNS debugging, reports not only the response from the name server but also details about the query?
A. dnsq
B. dig
C. hostname
D. dnslookup
E. zoneinfo
Correct Answer: B

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Vendor: SASInstitute
Certifications: SAS Institute Systems Certification
Exam Name: SAS Base Programming for SAS 9
Exam Code: A00-211
Total Questions: 218 Q&As
A00-211 dumps
QUESTION 1
Consider the following data step:
A00-211 dumps
The computed variables City and State have their values assigned using two different methods, a RETAIN statement and an Assignment statement. Which statement regarding this program is true?
A. The RETAIN statement is fine, but the value of City will be truncated to 8 bytes as the LENGTH statement has been omitted.
B. Both the RETAIN and assignment statement are being used to initialize new variables and are equally efficient. Method used is a matter of programmer preference.
C. The assignment statement is fine, but the value of City will be truncated to 8 bytes as the LENGTH statement has been omitted.
D. City’s value will be assigned one time, State’s value 5 times.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 2
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.new;
length word $7;
amount = 7;
if amount = 5 then word = ‘CAT’;
else if amount = 7 then word = ‘DOG’;
else word = ‘NONE!!!’;
amount = 5;
run;
Which one of the following represents the values of the AMOUNT and WORD variables?
A. amount word
5 DOG
B. amount word
5 CAT
C. amount word
7 DOG
D. amount word
7 ‘ ‘ (missing character value)
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.pieces;
do while (n lt 6);
n + 1;
end;
run;
A00-211 dumps Which one of the following is the value of the variable N in the output data set?
A. 4
B. 5
C. 6
D. 7
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 4
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.test;
Title = ‘A Tale of Two Cities, Charles J. Dickens’;
Word = scan(title,3,’ ,’);
run;
Which one of the following is the value of the variable WORD in the output data set?
A. T
B. of
C. Dickens
D. ‘ ‘ (missing character value)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.test;
First = ‘Ipswich, England’;
City_Country = substr(First,1,7)!!’, ‘!!’England’;
run;
Which one of the following is the length of the variable CITY_COUNTRY in the output data set?
A. 6
B. 7
C. 17
D. 25
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 6
Which one of the following SAS statements renames two variables?
A. set work.dept1
work.dept2(rename = (jcode = jobcode)
(sal = salary));
B. set work.dept1
work.dept2(rename = (jcode = jobcode
sal = salary));
C. set work.dept1
work.dept2(rename = jcode = jobcode
sal = salary);
D. set work.dept1
work.dept2(rename = (jcode jobcode)
(sal salary));
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
The SAS data set WORK.AWARDS is listed below:
fname points
Amy 2
Amy 1
Gerard 3
Wang 3
Wang 1
Wang 2
The following SAS program is submitted:
proc sort data = work.awards;
by descending fname points;
run;
Which one of the following represents how the observations are sorted?
A. Wang 3
Gerard 3
Wang 2
Amy 2
Wang 1
Amy 1
B. Wang 3
Wang 2
Wang 1
Gerard 3
Amy 2
Amy 1
C. Wang 3
Wang 1
Wang 2
Gerard 3
Amy 2
Amy 1
D. Wang 1
Wang 2
Wang 3
Gerard 3
Amy 1
Amy 2
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
A raw data file is listed below:
——–10——-20——-30
John McCloskey 35 71
June Rosesette 10 43
Tineke Jones 9 37
The following SAS program is submitted using the raw data file as input:
data work.homework;
infile ‘file-specification’;
input name $ age height;
if age LE 10;
run;
How many observations will the WORK.HOMEWORK data set contain?
A. 0
B. 2
C. 3
D. No data set is created as the program fails to execute due to errors.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
The following SAS program is submitted:
data work.report;
set work.sales_info;
if qtr(sales_date) ge 3;
run;
The SAS data set WORK.SALES_INFO has one observation for each month in the year 2000 and the
variable SALES_DATE which contains a SAS date value for each of the twelve months. A00-211 dumps
How many of the original twelve observations in WORK.SALES_INFO are written to the WORK.REPORT
data set?
A. 2
B. 3
C. 6
D. 9
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
The following SAS SORT procedure step generates an output data set:
proc sort data = sasuser.houses out = report;
by style;
run;
In which library is the output data set stored?
A. WORK
B. REPORT.
C. HOUSES
D. SASUSER
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
The following SAS program is submitted and reads 100 records from a raw data file:
data work.total;
infile ‘file-specification’ end = eof;
input name $ salary;
totsal + salary;
run;
Which one of the following IF statements writes the last observation to the output data set?
A. if end = 0;
B. if eof = 0;
C. if end = 1;
D. if eof = 1;
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which one of the following is true when SAS encounters a data error in a DATA step?
A. The DATA step stops executing at the point of the error, and no SAS data set is created.
B. A note is written to the SAS log explaining the error, and the DATA step continues to execute.
C. A note appears in the SAS log that the incorrect data record was saved to a separate SAS file for further examination.
D. The DATA step stops executing at the point of the error, and the resulting DATA set contains observations up to that point.
Correct Answer: B

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Free latest CompTIA CS0-001 exam dumps, valid exam question channel

Categories: CompTIA CySA+Author examPosted on

What is the best way to pass the CompTIA CySA+ CS0-001 exam? (First: Exam practice test, Second: Lead4pass CompTIA expert.) You can get free CompTIA CS0-001 exam practice test questions here.
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CompTIA CS0-001 Exam Video

Table of Contents:

Latest CompTIA CS0-001 google drive

[PDF] Free CompTIA CS0-001 pdf dumps download from Google Drive: https://drive.google.com/open?id=1SWIrLCSj4qgOfB86uKdQYM0Tdc3XrRlK

CySA+ (Plus) Cybersecurity Analyst Certification | CompTIA IT Certifications：https://www.comptia.org/certifications/cybersecurity-analyst

The CompTIA Cybersecurity Analyst (CySA+) certification verifies that successful candidates have the knowledge and skills required to configure and use threat detection tools, perform data analysis and interpret the results to identify vulnerabilities, threats, and risks to an organization, with the end goal of securing and protecting applications and systems within an organization.

CompTIA CySA+ is for IT professionals looking to gain the following security analyst skills:

  • Perform data analysis and interpret the results to identify vulnerabilities, threats, and risks to an organization.
  • Configure and use threat-detection tools.
  • Secure and protect applications and systems within an organization.

Latest updates CompTIA CS0-001 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Malware is suspected on a server in the environment. The analyst is provided with the output of commands from servers
in the environment and needs to review all output files in order to determine which process running on one of the
servers
may be malware. Servers 1, 2 and 4 are clickable. Select the Server which hosts the malware, and select the process
which hosts this malware.
Instructions:
If any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset button. When you have
completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select the
Next button to continue.
Hot Area:lead4pass cs0-001 exam question q1

Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 2
A security analyst is performing a review of Active Directory and discovers two new user accounts in the accounting
department. Neither of the users has elevated permissions, but accounts in the group are given access to the
company\\’s sensitive financial management application by default. Which of the following is the BEST course of
action?
A. Follow the incident response plan for the introduction of new accounts
B. Disable the user accounts
C. Remove the accounts\\’ access privileges to the sensitive application
D. Monitor the outbound traffic from the application for signs of data exfiltration
E. Confirm the accounts are valid and ensure role-based permissions are appropriate
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 3
A cybersecurity analyst is currently investigating a server outage. The analyst has discovered the following value was
entered for the username: 0xbfff601a. Which of the following attacks may be occurring?
A. Buffer overflow attack
B. Man-in-the-middle attack
C. Smurf attack
D. Format string attack
E. Denial of service attack
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
While preparing for a third-party audit, the vice president of risk management and the vice president of information
technology have stipulated that the vendor may not use offensive software during the audit. This is an example of:
A. organizational control.
B. service-level agreement.
C. rules of engagement.
D. risk appetite
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
A cybersecurity analyst has received an alert that well-known “call home” messages are continuously observed by
network sensors at the network boundary. The proxy firewall successfully drops the messages. After determining the
alert was a true positive, which of the following represents the MOST likely cause?
A. Attackers are running reconnaissance on company resources.
B. An outside command and control system is attempting to reach an infected system.
C. An insider is trying to exfiltrate information to a remote network.
D. Malware is running on a company system.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 6
An organization uses Common Vulnerability Scoring System (CVSS) scores to prioritize remediation of vulnerabilities.
Management wants to modify the priorities based on a difficulty factor so that vulnerabilities with lower CVSS scores
may get a higher priority if they are easier to implement with less risk to system functionality. Management also wants to
quantify the priority.
Which of the following would achieve management\\’s objective?
A. (CVSS Score) * Difficulty = Priority Where Difficulty is a range from 0.1 to 1.0 with 1.0 being easiest and lowest risk to
implement
B. (CVSS Score) * Difficulty = Priority Where Difficulty is a range from 1 to 5 with 1 being easiest and lowest risk to
implement
C. (CVSS Score) / Difficulty = Priority Where Difficulty is a range from 1 to 10 with 10 being easiest and lowest risk to
implement
D. ((CVSS Score) * 2) / Difficulty = Priority Where CVSS Score is weighted and Difficulty is a range from 1 to 5 with 5
being easiest and lowest risk to implement
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A company has decided to process credit card transactions directly. Which of the following would meet the requirements
for scanning this type of data?
A. Quarterly
B. Yearly
C. Bi-annually
D. Monthly
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
A security analyst suspects that a workstation may be beaconing to a command and control server. You must inspect
the logs from the company’s web proxy server and the firewall to determine the best course of action to take in order to
neutralize the threat with minimum impact to the organization.
Instructions:
If at any time you would like to bring back the initial state of the simulation, please select the Reset button. When you
have completed the simulation, please select the Done button to submit. Once the simulation is submitted, please select
the
Next button to continue.
Hot Area:

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Correct Answer:

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QUESTION 9
During a tabletop exercise, it is determined that a security analyst is required to ensure patching and scan reports are
available during an incident, as well as documentation of all critical systems. To which of the following stakeholders
should the analyst provide the reports?
A. Management
B. Affected vendors
C. Security operations
D. Legal
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 10
An analyst reviews a recent report of vulnerabilities on a company\\’s financial application server. Which of the following
should the analyst rate as being of the HIGHEST importance to the company\\’s environment?
A. Banner grabbing
B. Remote code execution
C. SQL injection
D. Use of old encryption algorithms
E. Susceptibility to XSS
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
Joe, an analyst, has received notice that a vendor who is coming in for a presentation will require access to a server
outside the network. Currently, users are only able to access remote sites through a VPN connection. Which of the
following should Joe use to BEST accommodate the vendor?
A. Allow incoming IPSec traffic into the vendor\\’s IP address.
B. Set up a VPN account for the vendor, allowing access to the remote site.
C. Turn off the firewall while the vendor is in the office, allowing access to the remote site.
D. Write a firewall rule to allow the vendor to have access to the remote site.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
A cybersecurity analyst is hired to review the security measures implemented within the domain controllers of a
company. Upon review, the cybersecurity analyst notices a brute force attack can be launched against domain
controllers that run on a Windows platform. The first remediation step implemented by the cybersecurity analyst is to
make the account passwords more complex. Which of the following is the NEXT remediation step the cybersecurity
analyst needs to implement?
A. Disable the ability to store a LAN manager hash.
B. Deploy a vulnerability scanner tool.
C. Install a different antivirus software.
D. Perform more frequent port scanning.
E. Move administrator accounts to a new security group.
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 13
An analyst wants to use a command line tool to identify open ports and running services on a host along with the
application that is associated with those services and port. Which of the following should the analyst use?
A. Wireshark
B. Qualys
C. netstat
D. nmap
E. ping
Correct Answer: D

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Hottest CompTIA SK0-004 Dumps Exam Practice Questions Free download

Categories: CompTIAAuthor examPosted on

QUESTION 1
A technician would like to ensure that when users connect to a web server in a server CompTIA sk0-004 dumps farm, they connect to the server with the lowest CPU utilization. Which of the following technologies would accomplish this?
A. Load balancing
B. High availability
C. Virtual machine
D. Reverse proxy
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Changing the boot order of devices can be configured from which of the following?
A. DIP switches
B. BIOS
C. Chipset
D. Control Panel
Correct Answer: B
sk0-004
QUESTION 3
Which of the SK0-004 following is an advantage of using non-ECC memory over ECC memory?
A. ECC is faster than non-ECC
B. Non-ECC is faster than ECC
C. Non-ECC is more expensive than ECC
D. Non-ECC checks for memory errors
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Before installing a new device, a technician checks to make sure the device is on the HCL. Which of the following is the advantage of having an HCL device?
A. It is supported by other vendors
B. Increases performance
C. Decreases cost
D. Meets vendor standards
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
When building a computer with a 32 bit processor, which of the SK0-004 pdf following is the MAXIMUM amount of memory supported?
A. 1GB
B. 2GB
C. 4GB
D. 8GB
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
A technician has installed an additional NIC on a server. Which of the following can now be setup?
A. Teaming
B. VLANs
C. Port forwarding
D. Full duplex
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
A technician is setting up a network and wants to automatically assign IP addresses. Which of the following will need to be configured to automatically assign IP addresses?
A. WINS
B. DNS
C. DHCP
D. NTP
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
A technician is building a Windows 2008 server and SK0-004 has installed a motherboard, processor, and power supply. Which of the following optical drives should the technician install?
A. Flash Drive
B. DVD-RW
C. CD-ROM
D. SSD
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
Typically, warranty information can be found on a vendor’s website by looking up which of the following?
A. Original hardware configuration
B. Service manual
C. Service tag
D. Model number
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
When purchasing a UPS for SK0-004 vce a server room, which of the following are important factors to consider? (Select TWO).
A. Network card configuration
B. Remote access procedures
C. Estimated runtime
D. Maximum load
E. Power cord length
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
A new server must be configured to provide fault tolerant connectivity to the SK0-004 DMZ and the backend database. Which of the following is the MOST cost effective way to accomplish this?
A. A total of six NICs: two pairs of teamed NICs for the DMZ and two NICs for the backend database.
B. One NIC can be configured with VLANs for the DMZ and backend database.
C. A total of eight NICs to be teamed with the appropriate VLANs configured for the DMZ and backend database.
D. A total of four NICs: two NICs for the DMZ and two NICs for the backend database.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
Which of the following is TRUE about a caching name server? (Select TWO).
A. They must have a trusted SSL certificate
B. They can be authoritative
C. They cannot be load-balanced
D. They can be recursive
E. They require DHCP
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 13
A technician needs to deploy a new Internet facing web server and internal database server. The web server will use the database backend to SK0-004 exam retrieve shopping cart information. Which of the following configuration utilizes the LEAST resources?
A. Both servers will be virtualized on the same host server. The web server will be configured with an Internet facing NIC connected to the host’s hardware NIC and a backend NIC connected to a virtual switch. The database server NIC will be connected to the same virtual switch.
B. The database server will be created on the existing virtual farm and configured with one physical NIC. The web server will be installed on new hardware and will utilize two physical NICs to separate backend traffic from frontend Internet communication.
C. The web server will be created on the existing virtual farm and configured with two physical NICs, one NIC for backend and one for backend communication. The database server will be installed on new hardware to ensure maximum performance.
D. Both servers will be virtualized on a pair of redundant host servers. Both the web server and the database server will share the same hardware resources. The web server will be configured with one NIC for both frontend and backend communication and the databases server will also have one NIC.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 14
A technician has fixed a reported issue with a heavily used software program and users have verified that the program is working correctly. Which of the following should the technician do NEXT?
A. Document the process and update the baseline.
B. Test the theory of probable cause and verify with the software vendor.
C. Establish a plan of action to be included in the business impact analysis.
D. Implement the software manufacturer workaround.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 15
After installing a new hard drive into a server for the sk0-004 purpose of mirroring the data from the first drive to the second one, the server displays an “operating system not found” error. Which of the following should the technician do to boot the server from the original drive?
A. Replace the second drive with a hot swappable one.
B. Swap the drive boot order in the BIOS.
C. Make the second disk active under the disk management tool.
D. Rebuild the array using the hardware RAID tool at boot.
Correct Answer: B

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Update Free IIA IIA-CIA-Part2 Exam Test Practice Questions Online

Categories: IIAAuthor examPosted on

Vendor: IIA
Exam Code: IIA-CIA-Part2
Exam Name: Certified Internal Auditor – Part 2, Conducting the Internal Audit Engagement
Version: Demo

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IIA-CIA-Part2

QUESTION 1
Which of the following would be a red flag that indicates the possibility of inventory fraud?
I. The controller has assumed responsibility for approving all payments to IIA-CIA-Part2 certain vendors.
II. The controller has continuously delayed installation of a new accounts payable system, despite a corporate directive to implement it.
III. Sales commissions are not consistent with the organization’s increased levels of sales.
IV.Payments to certain vendors are supported by copies of receiving memos, rather than originals.
A.I and II only
B.II and III only
C.I, II, and IV only
D.I, III, and IV only
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
During an operational audit of a chain of pizza delivery stores, an auditor determined that cold pizzas were causing customer dissatisfaction. A review of oven calibration records for the IIA-CIA-Part2 vce last six months revealed that adjustments were made on over 40 percent of the ovens. Based on this, the auditor:
A. Has enough evidence to conclude that improperly functioning ovens are the cause.
B. Needs to conduct further inquiries and reviews to determine the impact of the oven variations on the pizza temperature.
C. Has enough evidence to recommend the replacement of some of the ovens.
D. Must search for another cause since approximately 60 percent of the ovens did not require adjustment.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
When assessing the IIA-CIA-Part2 risk associated with an activity, an internal auditor should:
A. Determine how the risk should best be managed.
B. Provide assurance on the management of the risk.
C. Modify the risk management process based on risk exposures.
D. Design controls to mitigate the identified risks.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
Which of the following procedures would provide the best evidence of the IIA-CIA-Part2 effectiveness of a credit-granting function?
A. Observe the process.
B. Review the trend in receivables write-offs.
C. Ask the credit manager about the effectiveness of the function.
D. Check for evidence of credit approval on a sample of customer orders.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5
The most effective way for internal auditors to IIA-CIA-Part2 dumps enhance the reliability of computerized financial and operating information is by:
A. Determining if controls over record keeping and reporting are adequate and effective.
B. Reviewing data provided by information systems to test compliance with external requirements.
C. Determining if information systems provide management with timely information.
D. Determining if information systems provide complete information.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
Which of the following situations might allow an employee to steal checks sent to IIA-CIA-Part2 an organization and subsequently cash them?
A. Checks are not restrictively endorsed when received.
B. Only one signature is required on the organization’s checks.
C. One employee handles both accounts receivable and purchase orders.
D. One employee handles both cash deposits and accounts payable.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
An internal auditor is assigned to conduct an audit of security for a local area network (LAN) in the finance department of the organization. Investment decisions, including the use of hedging strategies and financial derivatives, use data and financial models which run on the LAN. The LAN is also used to download data from the IIA-CIA-Part2 mainframe to assist in decisions. Which of the following should be considered outside the scope of this security audit engagement?
A. Investigation of the physical security over access to the components of the LAN.
B. The ability of the LAN application to identify data items at the field or record level and implement user access security at that level.
C. Interviews with users to determine their assessment of the level of security in the system and the vulnerability of the system to compromise.
D. The level of security of other LANs in the company which also utilize sensitive data.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
An audit of management’s quality program includes testing the IIA-CIA-Part2 accuracy of the cost-of-quality reports provided to management. Which of the following internal control objectives is the focus of this testing?
A. To ensure compliance with policies, plans, procedures, laws, and regulations.
B. To ensure the accomplishment of established objectives and goals for operations or programs.
C. To ensure the reliability and integrity of information.
D. To ensure the economical and efficient use of resources.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
When internal auditors provide consulting services, the IIA-CIA-Part2 pdf scope of the engagement is primarily determined by:
A. Internal auditing standards.
B. The audit engagement team.
C. The engagement client.
D. The internal audit activity’s charter.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A manufacturing process could create hazardous waste at several production stages, from raw materials handling to finished goods storage. If the IIA-CIA-Part2 objective of a pollution prevention audit engagement is to identify opportunities for minimizing waste, in what order should the following opportunities be considered?
I. Recycling and reuse.
II. Elimination at the source.
III. Energy conservation.
IV.Recovery as a usable product Treatment.
A.V, II, IV, I, III.
B.IV, II, I, III, V.
C.I, III, IV, II, V.
D.III, IV, II, V, I.
Correct Answer: B

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Reference: https://na.theiia.org/certification/CIA-Certification/Pages/CIA-2013-Exam-Syllabus-Part-2.aspx

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100% Pass Guarantee With Latest Microsoft 70-463 Dumps Exam Materials

Categories: MicrosoftAuthor examPosted on

Question No : 1
You are the data steward for a Business Intelligence project.
You must identify duplicate rows stored in a SQL Server table and output discoveries to a CSV file. A Data Quality Services (DQS) knowledge base has been created to support this project. Latest Microsoft 70-463 dumps exam questions and answers
You need to produce the CSV file with the least amount of development effort.
What should you do?
A. Create an Integration Services package and use a Data Profiling transform.
B. Create a custom .NET application based on the Knowledgebase class.
C. Create a data quality project.
D. Create a CLR stored procedure based on the Knowledgebase class.
E. Create a Master Data Services (MDS) business rule.
Answer: C

Question No : 2
You manage a SQL Server Master Data Services (MDS) environment.
A new application requires access to the product data that is available in the MDS repository.
You need to design a solution that gives the application access to the product data with the least amount of development effort.
What should you do?
A. Create a Subscription View in MDS.
B. Access the product entity tables in the MDS database directly.
C. Use SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) to extract the data and put it in a staging database.
D. Use change data capture on the product entity tables.
Answer: A
070-463
Question No : 3
You are installing SQL Server Data Quality Services (DQS).
You need to give users belonging to a specific Active Directory group access to the Data Quality Server.
Which SQL Server application should you use?
A. Data Quality Client with administrative credentials
B. SQL Server Configuration Manager with local administrative credentials
C. SQL Server Data Tools with local administrative permissions
D. SQL Server Management Studio with administrative credentials
Answer: D

Question No : 4
You are using the Knowledge Discovery feature of the Data Quality Services (DQS) client application to modify an existing knowledge base.   70-463 dumps
In the mapping configuration, two of the three columns are mapped to existing domains in the knowledge base. The third column, named Team Type, does not yet have a domain.
You need to complete the mapping of the Team Type column.
What should you do?
A. Add a column mapping for the Team Type column.
B. Map a composite domain to the source column.
C. Create a composite domain that includes the Team Type column.
D. Add a domain for the Team Type column.
Answer: D

Question No : 5
You are maintaining a Data Quality Services (DQS) environment. The production server failed and a new server has been set up. The DQS databases are restored to a new server.
All the appropriate permissions are granted.
DQS users are experiencing issues connecting to the new Data Quality Server.
You need to enable users to connect to the new server.
Which Surface Area Configuration property should you enable?
A. AdHocRemoteQueriesEnabled
B. SoapEndpointsEnabled
C. ClrIntegrationEnabled
D. RemoteDacEnabled
E. OleAutomationEnabled
F. XpCmdShellEnabled
Answer: C

Question No : 6
Occasionally a job that executes an existing SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package does not complete and nothing is processed.
You need to ensure that package logging occurs. Your solution must minimize deployment and development efforts.
What should you do?
A. Create a reusable custom logging component.
B. Use the gacutil command.
C. Use the Project Deployment Wizard.
D. Run the package by using the dtexec /rep /conn command.
E. Add a data tap on the output of a component in the package data flow.
F. Create an OnError event handler.
G. Use the dtutil /copy command.
H. Deploy the package by using an msi file.
I. Run the package by using the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
J. Run the package by using the dtexecui.exe utility and the SQL Log provider.
K. Deploy the package to the Integration Services catalog by using dtutil and use SQL Server to store the configuration.
Answer: J

Question No : 7
You are writing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that transfers data from a legacy system.
Data integrity in the legacy system is very poor. Invalid rows are discarded by the package but must be logged to a CSV file for auditing purposes.   70-463 dumps
You need to establish the best technique to log these invalid rows while minimizing the amount of development effort.
What should you do?
A. Add a data tap on the output of a component in the package data flow.
B. Deploy the package by using an msi file.
C. Run the package by using the dtexecui.exe utility and the SQL Log provider.
D. uses the dtutil /copy command.
E. Deploy the package to the Integration Services catalog by using dtutil and use SQL Server to store the configuration.
F. Create an OnError event handler.
G. uses the Project Deployment Wizard.
H. Use the gacutil command.
I. Create a reusable custom logging component.
J. Run the package by using the dtexec /rep /conn command.
K. Run the package by using the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.
Answer: A

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[New Version] Latest Microsoft MCSM 70-464 Dumps PDF Files And VCE Youtube Demo Update Free Shared

Categories: MicrosoftAuthor examPosted on

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Vendor: Microsoft
Certifications: MCSM
Exam Name: Developing Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Databases
Exam Code: 70-464
Total Questions: 182 Q&As
070-464 dumps
QUESTION 1
You need to modify usp_SelectSpeakersByName to support server-side paging. The solution must minimize the amount of development effort required.
What should you add to usp_SelectSpeakersByName?
A. A table variable
B. An OFFSET-FETCH clause
C. The ROWNUMBER keyword
D. A recursive common table expression
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
You execute IndexManagement.sql and you receive the following error message:
“Msg 512, Level 16, State 1, Line 12
Subquery returned more than 1 value. This is not permitted when the subquery follows =,! =, <, <= ,>, > = or when the subquery is used as an expression.”
You need to ensure that IndexManagement.sql executes properly.
Which WHILE statement should you use at line 18?
A. WHILE SUM(@RowNumber) < (SELECT @counter FROM @indextable)
B. WHILE @counter < (SELECT COUNT(RowNumber) FROM @indextable)
C. WHILE COUNT(@RowNumber) < (SELECT @counter FROM @indextable)
D. WHILE @counter < (SELECT SUM(RowNumber) FROM @indextabie)
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
You are evaluating the table design.
You need to recommend a change to Tables.sql that reduces the amount of time it takes for usp_AttendeesReport to execute.
What should you add at line 14 of Tables.sql? 070-464 dumps
A. FullName nvarchar(100) NOT NULL CONSTRAINT DF_FuIlName DEFAULT (dbo.CreateFullName (FirstName, LastName)),
B. FullName AS (FirstName +` ‘+ LastName),
C. FullName nvarchar(100) NOT NULL DEFAULT (dbo.CreateFullName (FirstName, LastName)).
D. FullName AS (FirstName +` ‘+ LastName) PERSISTED,
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 4
You need to provide referential integrity between the Offices table and Employees table.
Which code segment or segments should you add at line 27 of Tables.sql? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)
070-464 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 5
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that SQL1 supports the auditing requirements of usp_UpdateSpeakerName.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. The Distributed Transaction Coordinator (DTC)
B. Transactional replication
C. Change data capture
D. Change tracking
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
You need to create the InvoiceStatus table in DB1.
How should you define the InvoiceID column in the CREATE TABLE statement?
070-464 dumps
A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
You execute usp_TestSpeakers.
You discover that usp_SelectSpeakersByName uses inefficient execution plans.
You need to update usp_SelectSpeakersByName to ensure that the most efficient execution plan is used.
What should you add at line 30 of Procedures.sql?
A. OPTION (FORCESCAN)
B. OPTION (FORCESEEK)
C. OPTION (OPTIMIZE FOR UNKNOWN)
D. OPTION (OPTIMIZE FOR (@LastName= ‘Anderson’))
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 8
You need to create the object used by the parameter of usp_InsertSessions.
Which statement should you use? 70-464 dumps
A. CREATE XML SCHEMA COLLECTION SessionDataTable
B. CREATE TYPE SessionDataTable AS Table
C. CREATE SCHEMA SessionDataTable
D. CREATE TABLE SessionDataTable
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 9
You discover that usp.SelectSpeakersByName executes slowly if usp_UpdateSpeakerName executes simultaneously.
You need to minimize the execution time of usp.SelectSpeakersByName. The solution must not affect the performance of the other stored procedures.
What should you update?
A. Usp_UpdateSpeakerName to use the NOLOCK query hint
B. Usp_UpdateSpeakerName to use snapshot isolation
C. Usp_SelectSpeakersByName to use the NOLOCK query hint
D. Usp_SelectSpeakersByName to use snapshot isolation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
You attempt to process an invoice by using usp_InsertInvoice.sql and you receive the following error message: “Msg 515, Level 16, State 2, Procedure usp_InsertInvoice, Line 10 Cannot insert the value NULL into column ‘InvoiceDate’, table ‘DB1.Accounting.Invoices’; column does not allow nulls. INSERT fails.”
You need to modify usp_InsertInvoice.sql to resolve the error.
How should you modify the INSERT statement?
A. InvoiceDate varchar(l00) ‘InvoiceDate’,
B. InvoiceDate varchar(100) ‘Customer/InvoiceDate’, ‘
C. InvoiceDate date ‘@InvoiceDate’,
D. InvoiceDate date ‘Customer/@InvoiceDate’,
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 11
You need to recommend a solution to ensure that SQL1 supports the auditing requirements of usp_UpdateEmployeeName.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. Change data capture
B. Change tracking
C. Transactional replication
D. The Distributed Transaction Coordinator (DTC)
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 12
You need to implement a solution that meets the job application requirements.
What should you do? 70-464 dumps
A. Create a one-to-one relationship between the Openings table and the Applications table.
B. Create a one-to-one relationship between the Candidates table and the Applications table.
C. Add a UNIQUE constraint to the Applications table on the ApplicationID column and CandidateID column.
D. Add a UNIQUE constraint to the Applications table on the OpeningID column and the CandidateID column.
Correct Answer: D

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[2020.4] Cisco 210-255 dumps certification tips and free exam exercise questions

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Real and effective Cisco 210-255 exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
Who is responsible for initially analyzing an incident to determine what has happened?
A. IT director
B. CIO
C. server administrator
D. incident handler
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 2
Which of the following is true about journaling?
A. The journal is the least used part of the disk, making the blocks that form part of it more prone to hardware failure.
B. The journal is the most used part of the disk, making the blocks that form part of it less prone to hardware failure.
C. The journal is the most used part of the disk, making the blocks that form part of it more prone to hardware failure.
D. The journal is the least used part of the disk, making the blocks that form part of it less prone to hardware failure.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 3
Which of the following is one of the most used Linux file systems that have several improvements over its predecessors
and that supports journaling?
A. NTFS
B. exFAT
C. Ext5
D. Ext4
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 4
What protocol is related to NAC?
A. 802.1Q
B. 802.1X
C. 802.1E
D. 802.1F
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.Dumpsdemo 210-255 questions q5

Drag and drop the items from the left onto the correct 5-tuples on the right.
Select and Place:

Dumpsdemo 210-255 questions q5-2

Correct Answer:

Dumpsdemo 210-255 questions q5-1

 

QUESTION 6
What is a listening port?
A. A port that remains open and waiting for incoming connections
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
Which HTTP header field is usually used in forensics to identify the type of browser used?
A. User-agent
B. Referrer
C. Host
D. Accept-language
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
What are the metric values of confidentiality based on the CVSS framework?
A. Low-high
B. Low -Medium-high
C. High-Low-none
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which two useful pieces of information can be collected from the IPv4 protocol header? (Choose two.)
A. UDP port which the traffic is destined
B. source IP address of the packet
C. UDP port from which the traffic is sourced
D. TCP port from which the traffic was the source
E. destination IP address of the packet
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 10
Which of the following is not an example of reconnaissance?
A. Searching the robots.txt file
B. Redirecting users to a source and scanning traffic to learn about the target
C. Scanning without completing the three-way handshake
D. Communicating over social media
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Which incident handling phase is focused on minimizing the impact of the incident?
A. reporting
B. remediation
C. containment
D. scoping
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 12
Which option allows a file to be extracted from a TCP stream within Wireshark?
A. File > Export Objects
B. Analyze > Extract
C. Tools > Export > TCP
D. View > Extract
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13
Which of the following Linux file systems not only supports journaling but also modifies important data structures of the
file system, such as the ones destined to store the file data for better performance and reliability?
A. GRUB
B. LILO
C. Ext4
D. FAT32
Correct Answer: C

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[2020.4] Cisco 210-250 dumps certification tips and free exam exercise questions

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Real and effective Cisco 210-250 exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
The way you document and preserve evidence from the time you start the cyber forensics investigation to the time the
evidence is presented in court is referred to as which of the following?
A. Chain of compromise
B. Custody of compromise
C. Chain of forensics
D. Chain of custody
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
If an attacker uses phishing to obtain user credentials for an employee without administrator access and needs to install
a rootkit backdoor that requires system-level access, what might be the attacker\\’s next course of action to gain the
administrator privileges?
A. set a scheduled task to install the rootkit the following day under the current user account
B. try to brute force that user\\’s password for an RDP connection to the user\\’s workstation
C. change the IP address of the user\\’s computer from DHCP-assigned to static.
D. attempt to extract local administrator credentials stored on the machine in running memory or the registry
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
Regarding outbound email security policies, which one of the following steps is omitted from the outbound mail pipeline,
but is it available in the inbound mail pipeline?
A. reputation filters
B. RSA DLP
C. advanced malware protection
D. anti-virus
E. anti-spam
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 4
Which of the following are examples of protocols used for VPN implementations?
A. TCP
B. Secure Sockets Layer (SSL)
C. Multiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS)
D. Internet Protocol Security (IPsec)
Correct Answer: BCD

 

QUESTION 5
What is included in a capability table?
A. Several objects with user access rights
B. Several subjects with user access rights
C. Objects and subjects with their access rights
D. Access rights
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
Which access control model does SELinux use?
A. RBAC
B. ABAC
C. DAC
D. MAC
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
What best describes the ultimate goal of having proper security management systems and processes in an
organization?
A. protect the company assets
B. ensure the effectiveness of the security controls
C. eliminate all the security risks
D. remove all vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
Which ICMP message type is sent by the router if an IP packet TTL field reaches zero?
A. Destination Unreachable
B. ICMP Time-Exceeded
C. Echo Reply
D. Echo-Request
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
What common defense-in-depth method can help reduce the attack surface?
A. use 8-character passwords
B. replace copper connections with fiber-based connections
C. deploy IPS, firewalls, and AAA-based platforms and services
D. use UDP protocols to preserve bandwidth and protocol overhead
E. place systems on Internet-facing DMZ link to control traffic flows
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 10
What is an amplification attack?
A. An amplification attack is a form of directed DDoS attack in which the attacker\\’s packets are sent at a much faster
rate than the victim\\’s packets.
B. An amplification attack is a form of reflected attack in which the response traffic (sent by the unwitting participant) is
made up of packets that are much larger than those that were initially sent by the attacker (spoofing the victim).
C. An amplification attack is a type of man-in-the-middle attack.
D. An amplification attack is a type of data exfiltration attack.
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 11
Many legacy cipher suites available in TLS are deemed insecure. Which three of the following traits make them
insecure? (Choose three.)
A. cipher suites using DES
B. cipher suites using RC4
C. cipher suites using AES
D. cipher suites using MD5
E. cipher suites using SHA-256
Correct Answer: ABD

 

QUESTION 12
In which phase of the access control does a user need to prove his or her identity?
A. Identification
B. Authentication
C. Authorization
D. Accounting
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
What is PHI?
A. Protected HIPAA information
B. Protected health information
C. Personal health information
D. Personal human information
Correct Answer: B

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