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QUESTION 1 Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. You plan to configure the environment to allow external users to collaborate in Microsoft Teams by using guest access. The company implements a new security policy that has the following requirements: Only guest users from specific domains must be allowed to connect to collaborate by using Microsoft Teams. Guest users must be prevented from inviting other guests. You need to recommend a solution to meet the security policy requirements. Solution: From the Azure Active Directory, you modify the External collaboration settings. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 You company has a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses Phone System and Calling Plans. You plan to implement a toll phone number for the helpdesk. You need to implement the following call features for the helpdesk phone number: Must include a greeting and hold music Must bypass menu options when a call is established to the helpdesk What two resources should you create? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. a call queue B. a call park C. an auto attendant D. a resource account E. a calling policy Correct Answer: AD Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/create-a-phone-system-call-queue
QUESTION 3 Your company has a Microsoft 365 tenant. Guest users report that they cannot access files or Microsoft OneNote from Microsoft Teams. The guest users can access channels, chats, and conversations. You need to ensure that the guest users can access the files and OneNote from Microsoft Teams. For what should you configure external sharing? A. Microsoft Teams B. Microsoft SharePoint Online C. Microsoft OneDrive for Business D. Microsoft Yammer. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT You need to configure Microsoft Teams to meet the department upgrade requirements. For each of the following statements, select Yes if that statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 5 You have an org-wide team named Team1. The members of Team1 report that they receive an excessive amount of notifications from channel messages. You need to reduce the amount of notifications by implementing the following changes: Allow only global administrators to create new posts in the General channel. Prevent @members for the org-wide team members. Which two actions should you perform from the Microsoft Teams client? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. From the Team1 settings, clear Give members the option to edit their messages. B. From the General Channel settings of Team1, set the channel moderation preference to Anyone can post; show alert that postings will notify everyone (recommended for large teams). C. From the General Channel settings of Team1 set the channel moderation preference to Only owners can post messages. D. From the Team1 settings, disable all the Fun stuff settings. E. From the Team1 settings set Show members the option to @team or @[team name] to Off. Correct Answer: CE Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/create-an-org-wide-team
QUESTION 6 You need to resolve the membership issues for the two pilot users. What should you do? A. Modify the department attribute of both users. B. Invite both users to the HR team. C. Add both users to the HR group. D. Modify the privacy level of the HR team. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 7 Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. You have a team that uses the following dynamic rule
Which user will be included in the group? A. A guest user in a department named Global Sales that has the country attribute set to the USA. B. A member user in a department named Marketing Division that has the country attribute set to the USA. C. A member user in a department named Marketing/Sales that has the country attribute set to the US. D. A guest user in a department named US Marketing Division that has the country attribute set to the US. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 You need to configure the environment to meet the technical requirements for guest users. What should you modify from the Microsoft Teams admin center? A. the global app permission policy B. the Org-wide settings C. the global meeting policy D. the global messaging policy Correct Answer: B Microsoft Teams admin center > Org-wide settings > Guest access > Make private calls = off.
QUESTION 9 HOTSPOT Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 subscription. The company has three departments. Each department contains a group as shown in the following table.
You plan to create a team for each group. You need to ensure that a team can be created for each group. The solution must minimize administrative effort. What should you do to each group? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. From the Microsoft Teams client, you review the teams shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)
Members of the Retail team report that they cannot create channels. You need to ensure that the Retail team members can create channels. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, change the membership type of the Office 365 group for the Retail team to Assigned. B. From the Microsoft Teams client, promote all the Retail team members to an owner role. C. From the Microsoft Teams admin center, unarchive the Retail team. D. Instruct the Retail team owner to restore the team by using the Microsoft Teams client. E. From PowerShell, modify the information barrier policy. Correct Answer: CD
QUESTION 11 Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. The company plans to host Microsoft Teams live events for groups of users larger than 5,000. You need to recommend a solution that minimizes the bandwidth required to stream the events. What should you include in the recommendation? A. a Session Border Controller (SBC) B. a third-party encoder C. an eCDN provider D. a Cloud Video Interop (CVI) Correct Answer: C Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/stream/network-overview
QUESTION 12 Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to prevent a user named User1 from permanently deleting private chats in Microsoft Teams. Solution: You create an In-Place Hold for the Microsoft SharePoint site used by Microsoft Team. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 13 You need to configure the IP phones to meet the device requirements. What is the minimum number of configuration profiles you should create? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4 Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 1 You have an existing Azure IoT hub. You need to connect physical IoT devices to the IoT hub. You are connecting the devices through a firewall that allows only port 443 and port 80. Which of following three communication protocols can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. HTTPS B. MQTT C. AMQP over WebSocket D. MQTT over WebSocket Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 2 You have an Azure IoT hub that uses a Device Provision Service instance. You plan to deploy 100 IoT devices. You need to confirm the identity of the devices by using the Device Provision Service. Which three device attestation mechanisms can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. X.509 certificates B. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) 2.0 C. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) 1.2 D. Symmetric key E. Device Identity Composition Engine (DICE) Correct Answer: ABD The Device Provisioning Service supports the following forms of attestation: X.509 certificates based on the standard X.509 certificate authentication flow. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) based on a nonce challenge, using the TPM 2.0 standard for keys to present a signed Shared Access Signature (SAS) token. This does not require a physical TPM on the device, but the service expects to attest using the endorsement key per the TPM spec. Symmetric Key based on shared access signature (SAS) Security tokens, which include a hashed signature and an embedded expiration. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-dps/concepts-service#attestation-mechanism
QUESTION 3 DRAG DROP You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub. You receive a root certification authority (CA) certificate from the security department at your company. You need to configure the IoT hub to use the root CA certificate. Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
QUESTION 4 You need to store the real-time alerts generated by Stream Analytics to meet the technical requirements. Which type of Stream Analytics output should you configure? A. Azure Blob storage B. Microsoft Power BI C. Azure Cosmos DB D. Azure SQL Database Correct Answer: A When you create a Time Series Insights Preview pay-as-you-go (PAYG) SKU environment, you create two Azure resources: An Azure Storage general-purpose V1 blob account for cold data storage. An Azure Time Series Insights Preview environment that can be configured for warm data storage. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/time-series-insights/time-series-insights-update-storage-ingress
QUESTION 5 DRAG DROP You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and 1,000 connected IoT devices. The IoT devices are allocated to tour enrollment groups. Each enrollment group is configured to use certificate attestation. You need to decommission all the devices in a single enrollment group and the enrollment group itself. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
To deprovision all of the devices that have been provisioned through an enrollment group: Disable the enrollment group to disallow its signing certificate. Use the list of provisioned devices for that enrollment group to disable or delete each device from the identity registry of its respective IoT hub. After disabling or deleting all devices from their respective IoT hubs, you can optionally delete the enrollment group. Be aware, though, that, if you delete the enrollment group and there is an enabled enrollment group for a signing certificate higher up in the certificate chain of one or more of the devices, those devices can re-enroll. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-dps/how-to-unprovision-devices
QUESTION 6 You have a Standard tier Azure IoT hub and a fleet of IoT devices. The devices connect to the IoT hub by using either Message Queuing Telemetry Transport (MQTT) or Advanced Message Queuing Protocol (AMQP). You need to send data to the IoT devices and each device must respond. Each device will require three minutes to process the data and respond. Solution: You update the twin desired property and check the corresponding reported property. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A IoT Hub provides three options for device apps to expose functionality to a back-end app: Twin\\’s desired properties for long-running commands intended to put the device into a certain desired state. For example, set the telemetry send interval to 30 minutes. Direct methods for communications that require immediate confirmation of the result. Direct methods are often used for interactive control of devices such as turning on a fan. Cloud-to-device messages for one-way notifications to the device app. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-devguide-c2d-guidance
QUESTION 7 HOTSPOT You have the following device twin for the IoT device.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 8 You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and 1,000 connected IoT devices. All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group. You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT hub. Solution: From the IoT hub, you change the credentials for the shared access policy of the IoT devices. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/iot-dps/how-to-unprovision-devices
QUESTION 9 You have an existing Azure IoT hub. You use IoT Hub jobs to schedule long running tasks on connected devices. Which two operations do the IoT Hub jobs support directly? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Trigger Azure functions. B. Invoke direct methods. C. Update desired properties. D. Send cloud-to-device messages. E. Disable IoT device registry entries. Correct Answer: BC Consider using jobs when you need to schedule and track progress any of the following activities on a set of devices: Invoke direct methods Update desired properties Update tags Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-devguide-jobs
QUESTION 10 HOTSPOT You need to use message enrichment to add additional device information to messages sent from the IoT gateway devices when the reported temperature exceeds a critical threshold. How should you configure the enrich message values? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 11 What should you do to identify the cause of the connectivity issues? A. Send cloud-to-device messages to the IoT devices. B. Use the heartbeat pattern to send messages from the IoT devices to iothub1. C. Monitor the connection status of the device twin by using an Azure function. D. Enable the collection of the Connections diagnostics logs and set up alerts for the connected devices count metric. Correct Answer: D Scenario: You discover connectivity issues between the IoT gateway devices and iothub1, which cause IoT devices to lose connectivity and messages. To log device connection events and errors, turn on diagnostics for IoT Hub. We recommend turning on these logs as early as possible, because if diagnostic logs aren\\’t enabled, when device disconnects occur, you won\\’t have any information to troubleshoot the problem with. Step 1: Sign in to the Azure portal. Browse to your IoT hub. Select Diagnostics settings. Select Turn on diagnostics. Enable Connections logs to be collected. For easier analysis, turn on Send to Log Analytics (see pricing). Step 2: Set up alerts for device disconnect at scale To get alerts when devices disconnect, configure alerts on the Connected devices (preview) metric. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-cyrl-ba/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-troubleshoot-connectivity
QUESTION 12 You use Azure Security Center in an Azure IoT solution. You need to exclude some security events. The solution must minimize development effort. What should you do? A. Create an Azure function to filter security messages. B. Add a configuration to the code of the physical IoT device. C. Add configuration details to the device twin object. D. Create an azureiotsecurity module twin and add configuration details to the module twin object. Correct Answer: D Properties related to every Azure Security Center for IoT security agent are located in the agent configuration object, within the desired properties section, of the azureiotsecurity module. To modify the configuration, create and modify this object inside the azureiotsecurity module twin identity. Note: Azure Security Center for IoT\\’s security agent twin configuration object is a JSON format object. The configuration object is a set of controllable properties that you can define to control the behavior of the agent. These configurations help you customize the agent for each scenario required. For example, automatically excluding some events, or keeping power consumption to a minimal level are possible by configuring these properties. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/asc-for-iot/how-to-agent-configuration
QUESTION 13 You have an Azure Stream Analytics job that receives input from an Azure IoT hub and sends the outputs to Azure Blob storage. The job has compatibility level 1.1 and six streaming units. You have the following query for the job.
You plan to increase the streaming unit count to 12. You need to optimize the job to take advantage of the additional streaming units and increase the throughput. Solution: You change the compatibility level of the job to 1.2. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Max number of Streaming Units with one step and with no partitions is 6. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-parallelization
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QUESTION 1 A support engineer is troubleshooting a voice network. When conducting a search for call setup details related to calling search space issues, which trace files should be investigated? A. CallManager traces B. CTI Manager traces C. Cisco IP Manager Assistant D. Call logs Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit.
Calls incoming from the provider are not working through newly set up Cisco Unified Border Element. Provider engineers get the 404 Not Found SIP message. Incoming calls are coming from the provider with called number “222333444” and Cisco Unified Communications Manager is expecting the called number to be delivered as “444333222”. The administrator already verified that the IP address of the Cisco Unified CM is set up correctly and there are no dial peers configured other than those shown in the exhibit. Which action must the administrator take to fix the issue? A. Change the destination-pattern on the outgoing dial peer to match “444333222”. B. Set up translation-profile on the incoming dial peer to match incoming traffic. C. Create specific matching for “222333444” on the incoming dial peer. D. Fix the voice translation-rule to match specifically number “222333444” and change it to “444333222”. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 An administrator discovers that employees are making unauthorized long-distance and international calls from loggedoff Extension Mobility phones when the authorized users are away from their desks Which two configurations should the administrator configure in the Cisco UCM to avoid this issue? (Choose two.) A. Remove the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions from the calling search space of the physical phone. B. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the physical phone\\’s directory number. C. Remove the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions from the calling search space of the device profile. D. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the physical phone. E. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the device profile Correct Answer: AE
QUESTION 5 A user in location X dials an extension at location Y. The call travels through a QoS-enabled WAN network, but the user experiences choppy or clipped audio. What is the cause of this issue? A. missing Call Admission Control B. codec mismatch C. ptime mismatch D. phone class of service issue Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 6 Refer to the exhibit.
Users report that when they dial the emergency number 9911 from any internal phone, it takes a long time to connect with the emergency operator. Which action resolves this issue? A. Adjust the service parameter T302 timet to the desired value. B. Adjust the service parameter T204 timer to the desired value. C. Check the Urgent Priority check box under 9.911 pattern. D. Point the emergency pattern directly to the PSTN gateway. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 8 An engineer must route all SIP calls in the form of @example.com to the SIP trunk gateway corporate local. Which two SIP route patterns can be used to accomplish this task? (Choose two.) A. [email protected] B. *@example.com C. gateway.corporate.local D. example.com E. *.* Correct Answer: BE
QUESTION 9 Refer to the exhibit.
An administrator is troubleshooting a situation where a call placed from a phone registered to Cisco Unified Communications Manager does not complete. The administrator wants to use the Dialed Number Analyzer on Cisco Unified CM to check which translation pattern the call is matching. However, when logging in to Cisco Unified Serviceability there is no option for Dialed Number Analyzer under the tool menu. Which two steps must be performed to resolve this issue? (Choose two.) A. Restart the subscriber B. Activate the Cisco Extended Functions service. C. Activate the Cisco CallManager service. D. Activate the Cisco Dialed Number Analyzer service. E. Activate the Cisco Dialed Number Analyzer Server service. Correct Answer: DE
QUESTION 10 A user reports when they press the services key they do not receive a user ID and password prompt to assign the phone extension. Which action resolves the issue? A. Create the default device profiles for all phone models that are used. B. Subscribe the phone to the Cisco Extension Mobility service. C. Create the end user and associate it to the device profile. D. Assign the extension as a mobile extension. Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 Which configuration must an administrator perform to display Translation Pattern operations in Cisco Unified Communications Manager SDL traces? A. Enable the Detailed Call Analysis option under Enterprise Parameters for Unified CM. B. Set up the Digit Analysis Complexity in Service Parameters for Cisco Unified CM to TranslationAndAlternatePatternAnalysis. C. Check the Translation Patterns Analysis check box in Micro Traces on the Cisco Unified CM Serviceability page. D. By default, the Translation Patterns operations are printed in SDL traces, so no additional configuration is necessary. Correct Answer: D Reference:https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/taking-sip-call-trace-on-ciscounified-cm-usingrtmt/ta-p/3161200
QUESTION 12 A customer is using a SIP trunk to route calls to ITSP to decrease the possibility of downtime, the customer invested in a failover device How does the customer ensure reachability to ITSP, so that if one device on ITSP fails, the calls will be routed to another device? A. Enable transmit security status on the SIP security profile B. Enable ANAT on the SIP profile. C. Monitor the link using network management toots, and if it fails, manually change the routing to another working device. D. Enable SIP Option Ping on the SIP profile. Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You discover that some external users accessed content on a Microsoft SharePoint site. You modify the SharePoint sharing policy to prevent sharing outside your organization. You need to be notified if the SharePoint sharing policy is modified in the future. Solution: From the Security and Compliance admin center, you create a threat management policy. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 2 After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a new Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to prevent users from sending email messages that contain Personally Identifiable Information (PII). Solution: From the Exchange admin center, you create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 You create a Microsoft 36S subscription. You need to create a deployment plan for Microsoft Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP). Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4 Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 Windows 8.1 devices. You plan to deploy a custom Windows 10 Enterprise image to the Windows 8.1 devices. You need to recommend a Windows 10 deployment method. What should you recommend? A. a provisioning package B. an in-place upgrade C. wipe and load refresh D. Windows Autopilot Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/enterprise/windows10-infrastructure
QUESTION 5 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You have a Microsoft 365 subscription. You need to prevent users from accessing your Microsoft SharePoint Online sites unless the users are connected to your on-premises network. Solution: From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you configure the Organization profile settings. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B Conditional Access in SharePoint Online can be configured to use an IP Address white list to allow access. References: https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/Microsoft-SharePoint-Blog/Conditional-Access-in-SharePoint-Online-andOneDrive-for/ba-p/46678A
QUESTION 7 Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. The company stores 2 TBs of data in SharePoint Online document libraries. The tenant has the labels shown in the following table.
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 8 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen. You are deploying Microsoft Intune. You successfully enroll Windows 10 devices in Intune. When you try to enroll an iOS device in Intune, you get an error. You need to ensure that you can enroll the iOS device in Intune. Solution: You add your user account as a device enrollment manager. Does this meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 9 You have several devices enrolled in Microsoft Intone. You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that includes the users shown in the following table.
You add User3 as a device enrollment manager in Intune. For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10 You need to protect the U.S. PII data to meet the technical requirements. What should you create? A. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that contains a domain exception B. a Security and Compliance retention policy that detects content containing sensitive data C. a Security and Compliance alert policy that contains an activity D. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that contains a user override Correct Answer: C References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/create-activity-alerts
QUESTION 11 You have a data loss prevention (DIP) policy. You need to increase the likelihood that the DLP policy will apply to data that contains medical terms from the International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9-CM). The solution must minimize the number of false positives. Which two settings should you modify? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 Your company uses Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (ATP). Windows Defender ATP includes the machine groups shown in the following table.
You onboard a computer named computer1 to Windows Defender ATP as shown in the following exhibit.
Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 13 Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com and a Microsoft 365 subscription. The company recently hired four new users who have the devices shown in the following table.
You configure the Microsoft 365 subscription to ensure that the new devices enroll in Microsoft Intune automatically. Which users have a device that can enroll in Microsoft Intune automatically? A. User1 and User2 only B. User 1, User2, and User only C. User1, User2.User3, and User4 D. User2only Correct Answer: D
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QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop has automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine for further analysis. What should be concluded from this report? A. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware. B. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware. C. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected. D. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are low and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 2 Refer to the exhibit. Which command was executed in PowerShell to generate this log?
QUESTION 3 DRAG-DROP Drag and drop the threat from the left onto the scenario that introduces the threat on the right. Not all options are used. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 4 A SOC analyst is notified by the network monitoring tool that there are unusual types of internal traffic on IP subnet 103.861.2117.0/24. The analyst discovers unexplained encrypted data files on a computer system that belongs on that specific subnet. What is the cause of the issue? A. DDoS attack B. phishing attack C. virus outbreak D. malware outbreak Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit. Which asset has the highest risk value?
A. servers B. website C. payment process D. secretary workstation Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 6 What is the principle of Infrastructure as Code? A. System maintenance is delegated to software systems B. Comprehensive initial designs support robust systems C. Scripts and manual configurations work together to ensure repeatable routines D. System downtime is grouped and scheduled across the infrastructure Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 7 An analyst is alerted for a malicious file hash. After analysis, the analyst determined that an internal workstation is communicating over port 80 with an external server and that the file hash is associated with Duqu malware. Which tactics, techniques, and procedures align with this analysis? A. Command and Control, Application Layer Protocol, Duqu B. Discovery, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu C. Lateral Movement, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu D. Discovery, System Network Configuration Discovery, Duqu Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 Refer to the exhibit. For IP 192.168.1.209, what are the risk level, activity, and next step?
A. high-risk level, anomalous periodic communication, quarantine with antivirus B. critical risk level, malicious server IP, run in a sandboxed environment C. critical risk level, data exfiltration, isolate the device D. high-risk level, malicious host, investigate further Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 9 DRAG-DROP
Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Secure Network Analytics (Stealthwatch) console alerted with “New Malware Server Discovered” and the IOC indicates communication from an end-user desktop to a Zeus CandC Server. Drag and drop the actions that the analyst should take from the left into the order on the right to investigate and remediate this IOC. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 10
Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine. What should be concluded from this report? A. Threat scores are high, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified B. Threat scores are low, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified C. Threat scores are high, malicious activity is detected, but files have not been modified D. Threat scores are low and no malicious file activity is detected Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 11 DRAG-DROP An organization lost connectivity to critical servers, and users cannot access business applications and internal websites. An engineer checks the network devices to investigate the outage and determines that all devices are functioning. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to continue investigating this issue. Not all options are used. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 An employee abused PowerShell commands and script interpreters, which lead to an indicator of compromise (IOC) trigger. The IOC event shows that a known malicious file has been executed, and there is an increased likelihood of a breach. Which indicator generated this IOC event? A. ExecutedMalware.ioc B. Crossrider.ioc C. ConnectToSuspiciousDomain.ioc D. W32 AccesschkUtility.ioc Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 13 A threat actor used a phishing email to deliver a file with an embedded macro. The file was opened, and a remote code execution attack occurred in a company\\’s infrastructure. Which steps should an engineer take at the recovery stage? A. Determine the systems involved and deploy available patches B. Analyze event logs and restrict network access C. Review access lists and require users to increase password complexity D. Identify the attack vector and update the IDS signature list Correct Answer: B
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QUESTION 2 What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution? A. to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships B. to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric C. to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD-Access fabric. D. to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 3 An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN? A. ISE server B. local WLC C. RADIUS server D. anchor WLC Correct Answer: B
QUESTION 4 How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other? A. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions correct B. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table C. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices D. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for processing before they are sent to the FIB Correct Answer: A The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) table?CEF uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions. The FIB is conceptually similar to a routing table or information base. It maintains a mirror image of the forwarding information contained in the IP routing table. When routing or topology changes occur in the network, the IP routing table is updated, and these changes are reflected in the FIB. The FIB maintains next-hop address information based on the information in the IP routing table. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/routers/12000-seriesrouters/47321-ciscoef.html
QUESTION 5 Refer to the exhibit.
Which statement about the OPSF debug output is true? A. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent to received on interface Fa0/1. B. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on all interfaces. C. The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent received on interface Fa0/1. D. The output displays OSPF hello and LSACK messages which router R1 has sent or received. Correct Answer: C This combination of commands is known as “Conditional debug” and will filter the debug output based on your conditions. Each condition added, will behave like an `And\\’ operator in Boolean logic. Some examples of the “debug IP OSPF hello” are shown below:
QUESTION 6 Which standard access control entry permits from odd-numbered hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet? A. Permit 10.0.0.0.0.0.0.1 B. Permit 10.0.0.1.0.0.0.0 C. Permit 10.0.0.1.0.0.0.254 D. Permit 10.0.0.0.255.255.255.254 Correct Answer: C Remember, for the wildcard mask, 1s are I DON\\’T CARE, and 0s are I CARE. So now let\\’s analyze a simple ACL: access-list 1 permit 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255 Two first octets are all 0\\’s meaning that we care about the network 172.23.x.x. The third octet of the wildcard mask, 15 (0000 1111 in binary), means that we care about the first 4 bits but don\\’t care about the last 4 bits so we allow the third octet in the form of 0001xxxx (minimum:00010000 = 16; maximum: 0001111 = 31).
The fourth octet is 255 (all 1 bits) which means I don\\’t care. Therefore network 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255 ranges from 172.23.16.0 to 172.23.31.255. Now let\\’s consider the wildcard mask of 0.0.0.254 (four-octet: 254 = 1111 1110) which means we only care the last bit. Therefore if the last bit of the IP address is a “1” (0000 0001) then only odd numbers are allowed. If the last bit of the IP address is a “0” (0000 0000) then only even numbers are allowed. Note: In binary, odd numbers always end with a “1” while even numbers always end with a “0”. Therefore in this question, only the statement “permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.254” will allow all odd-numbered hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet.
QUESTION 7 Refer to the exhibit.
During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the network. Which COS to DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly? A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46 B. COS of 7 to DSCP 48 C. COS of 6 to DSCP 46 D. COS of 3 to DSCP of 26 Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure. Which design facilitates migration from a traditional campus design to a programmable fabric design? A. Layer 2 access B. three-tier C. two-tier D. routed access Correct Answer: C Intent-based networking (IBN) transforms a hardware-centric, manual network into a controller-led network that captures business intent and translates it into policies that can be automated and applied consistently across the network. The goal is for the network to continuously monitor and adjust network performance to help assure desired business outcomes. IBN builds on software-defined networking (SDN). SDN usually uses spine-leaf architecture, which is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and leaves (such as an access layer).
QUESTION 9 An engineer is describing QoS to a client. Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two.) A. Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic B. Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible C. Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate D. Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it E. Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible Correct Answer: CE Traffic policing propagates bursts. When the traffic rate reaches the configured maximum rate (or committed information rate), excess traffic is dropped (or remarked). The result is an output rate that appears as a saw-tooth with crests and troughs. Unlike traffic shaping, traffic policing does not cause delay. Classification (which includes traffic policing, traffic shaping, and queuing techniques) should take place at the network edge. It is recommended that classification occur as close to the source of the traffic as possible. Also according to this Cisco link, “policing traffic as close to the source as possible”.
QUESTION 10 To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC to connect? A. Auto B. Active C. On D. Passive Correct Answer: C Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-mobility-documents/lag-link-aggregation/ta-p/3128669
QUESTION 11 Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used. Select and Place:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 12 On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric? A. LISP B. IS-IS C. Cisco TrustSec D. VXLAN Correct Answer: D The tunneling technology used for the fabric data plane is based on Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN). VXLAN encapsulation is UDP-based, meaning that it can be forwarded by any IP-based network (legacy or third party) and creates the overlay network for the SD-Access fabric. Although LISP is the control plane for the SD-Access fabric, it does not use LISP data encapsulation for the data plane; instead, it uses VXLAN encapsulation because it is capable of encapsulating the original Ethernet header to perform MAC-in-IP encapsulation, while LISP does not. Using VXLAN allows the SD-Access fabric to support Layer 2 and Layer 3 virtual topologies (overlays) and the ability to operate over any IP-based network with built-in network segmentation (VRF instance/VN) and built-in group-based policy. Reference: CCNP and CCIE Enterprise Core ENCOR 350-401 Official Cert Guide
QUESTION 13 Which NGFW mode block flows crossing the firewall? A. Passive B. Tap C. Inline tap D. Inline Correct Answer: D Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) provides six interface modes which are: Routed, Switched, Inline Pair, Inline Pair with Tap, Passive, Passive (ERSPAN). When Inline Pair Mode is in use, packets can be blocked since they are processed inline When you use Inline Pair mode, the packet goes mainly through the FTD Snort engine When Tap Mode is enabled, a copy of the packet is inspected and dropped internally while the actual traffic goes through FTD unmodified https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-ngfw/200924-configuringfirepower-threat-defenseint.html
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Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is preparing to implement a data plane security configuration. Which statement about this configuration is true? A. Router 2 is the router receiving the DDoS attack. B. Router 1 must be configured with uRPF for the RTBH implementation to be effective. C. Router 1 is the trigger router in an RTBH implementation. D. Router 2 must configure a route to null 0 for network 192.168.1.0/24 for the RTBH implementation to be complete. Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 4 Which three OSPF parameters must match before two devices can establish an OSPF adjacency? (Choose three.) A. IP address B. subnet mask C. interface cost D. process ID E. area number F. hello timer setting Correct Answer: BEF
Refer to the exhibit. Which statement supports QPPB implementation? A. QPPB policies affect only egress traffic. B. QoS policies rely exclusively on BGP attributes to manipulate traffic. C. QoS policies are identified in the MPLS forwarding table. D. QoS policies use BGP to gain full coverage on the network. Correct Answer: B The QoS Policy Propagation via BGP feature allows you to classify packets by IP precedence based on the Border Gateway Protocol (BGP) Attributes like community lists, BGP autonomous system paths, and access lists.
QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration prevents the OSPF neighbor from establishing? A. default-metric B. duplex C. network statement D. MTU Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 8 What are two factors to consider when implementing NSR High Availability on an MPLS PE router? (Choose two.) A. It consumes more memory and CPU resources than NSF B. It operates normally without NSR support on the PE peers. C. It requires all PE-CE sessions to support NSR D. It requires routing protocol extensions E. It cannot sync state information across redundant RPs Correct Answer: AB
QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is implementing a BGP routing policy. Which effect of this configuration is true? A. All traffic that matches acl10 is allowed without any change to its local preference. B. All traffic that matches acl10 is dropped without any change to its local preference. C. If traffic matches acl10, it is allowed and its local preference is set to 300. D. All traffic is assigned a local preference of 300 regardless of its destination. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 10 A network engineer is configuring a BGP route policy for the SUBNET prefix set. Matching traffic must be dropped, and other traffic must have its MED value set to 400 and community 4:400 added to the route. Which configuration must an engineer apply? A. router-policy CISCO if destination in SUBNET then drop else set med 400 set community (4:400) additive endif end-policy end B. router-policy CISCO if destination in SUBNET then drop endif set med 400 if community matches any SUBNET then set local-preference 400 set med 500 set community (4:400) additive endif end-policy end C. router-policy SUBNET if destination in SUBNET then drop endif set med 400 set local-preference 400 if community matches any SUBNET then set community (4:400) endif end-policy end D. router-policy SUBNET if destination in BGP then drop else set med 400 set community (4:400) endif end-policy end Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 11
Refer to the exhibit. A network operator working for a service provider with an employee id: 1234:56:789 applied this configuration to a router. Which additional step should the engineer use to enable LDP? A. Enable MPLS LDP on the interface. B. Disable Cisco Express Forwarding globally. C. Delete the static router ID. D. Configure both keywords to enable LDP globally. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 12 Refer to the exhibit.
A network operator must configure CSR1 interlaces GigabitEihernet2 and GigabitEthemet to rewrite VLAN tags 12 and 21 for traffic between R1 and R2 respectively. Which configurator accomplishes this task?
A. Option A B. Option B C. Option C Correct Answer: C IF bridge domain on both interfaces are 10
QUESTION 13
Refer to the exhibit. Router 1 was experiencing a DDoS attack that was traced to interface gigabitethernet0/1. Which statement about this configuration is true? A. Router 1 accepts all traffic that ingresses and egresses interface gigabitethernet0/1. B. Router 1 drops all traffic that ingresses interface gigabitethernet0/1 that has a FIB entry that exits a different interface. C. Router 1 accepts source addresses that have a match in the FIB that indicates it is reachable through a real interface. D. Router 1 accepts source addresses on interface gigabitethernet0/1 that are private addresses. Correct Answer: C Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nxos/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_urpf.html
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A NEW VERSION OF THIS EXAM, DP-203, IS AVAILABLE. You will be able to take this exam until it retires on June 30, 2021. Note: Exams retire at 11:59 PM Central Standard Time. [Get complete DP-203 exam questions and answers ]
Latest updates Microsoft DP-201 exam practice questions
QUESTION 1 You need to design the solution for analyzing customer data. What should you recommend? A. Azure Databricks B. Azure Data Lake Storage C. Azure SQL Data Warehouse D. Azure Cognitive Services E. Azure Batch Correct Answer: A Customer data must be analyzed using managed Spark clusters. You create spark clusters through Azure Databricks. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-databricks/quickstart-create-databricks-workspace-portal
QUESTION 2 You are designing an Azure Cosmos DB database that will support vertices and edges. Which Cosmos DB API should you include in the design? A. SQL B. Cassandra C. Gremlin D. Table Correct Answer: C The Azure Cosmos DB Gremlin API can be used to store massive graphs with billions of vertices and edges. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/graph-introduction
QUESTION 3 You are designing a real-time stream solution based on Azure Functions. The solution will process data uploaded to Azure Blob Storage. The solution requirements are as follows: 1. New blobs must be processed with a little delay as possible. 2. Scaling must occur automatically. 3. Costs must be minimized. What should you recommend? A. Deploy the Azure Function in an App Service plan and use a Blob trigger. B. Deploy the Azure Function in a Consumption plan and use an Event Grid trigger. C. Deploy the Azure Function in a Consumption plan and use a Blob trigger. D. Deploy the Azure Function in an App Service plan and use an Event Grid trigger. Correct Answer: C Create a function, with the help of a blob trigger template, which is triggered when files are uploaded to or updated in Azure Blob storage. You use a consumption plan, which is a hosting plan that defines how resources are allocated to your function app. In the default Consumption Plan, resources are added dynamically as required by your functions. In this serverless hosting, you only pay for the time your functions run. When you run in an App Service Plan, you must manage the scaling of your function app. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-functions/functions-create-storage-blob-triggered-function
QUESTION 4 You need to optimize storage for CONT_SQL3. What should you recommend? A. AlwaysOn B. Transactional processing C. General D. Data warehousing Correct Answer: B CONT_SQL3 with the SQL Server role, 100 GB database size, Hyper-VM to be migrated to Azure VM. The storage should be configured to optimized storage for database OLTP workloads. Azure SQL Database provides three basic in-memory based capabilities (built into the underlying database engine) that can contribute in a meaningful way to performance improvements: In-Memory Online Transactional Processing (OLTP) Clustered column store indexes intended primarily for Online Analytical Processing (OLAP) workloads Nonclustered column store indexes geared towards Hybrid Transactional/Analytical Processing (HTAP) workloads References: https://www.databasejournal.com/features/mssql/overview-of-in-memory-technologies-of-azure-sql-database.html
QUESTION 5 Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution. After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear on the review screen. You are designing an HDInsight/Hadoop cluster solution that uses Azure Data Lake Gen1 Storage. The solution requires POSIX permissions and enables diagnostics logging for auditing. You need to recommend solutions that optimize storage. Proposed Solution: Implement compaction jobs to combine small files into larger files. Does the solution meet the goal? A. Yes B. No Correct Answer: A Depending on what services and workloads are using the data, a good size to consider for files is 256 MB or greater. If the file sizes cannot be batched when landing in Data Lake Storage Gen1, you can have a separate compaction job that combines these files into larger ones. Note: POSIX permissions and auditing in Data Lake Storage Gen1 comes with an overhead that becomes apparent when working with numerous small files. As a best practice, you must batch your data into larger files versus writing thousands or millions of small files to Data Lake Storage Gen1. Avoiding small file sizes can have multiple benefits, such as: 1. Lowering the authentication checks across multiple files 2. Reduced open file connections 3. Faster copying/replication 4. Fewer files to process when updating Data Lake Storage Gen1 POSIX permissions References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/data-lake-store/data-lake-store-best-practices
QUESTION 6 You need to ensure that emergency road response vehicles are dispatched automatically. How should you design the processing system? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
Explanation: Box1: API App
Events generated from the IoT data sources are sent to the stream ingestion layer through Azure HDInsight Kafka as a stream of messages. HDInsight Kafka stores a stream of data in topics for a configurable of time. Kafka consumer, Azure Databricks, picks up the message in real-time from the Kafka topic, to process the data based on the business logic and can then send to the Serving layer for storage. Downstream storage services, like Azure Cosmos DB, Azure SQL Data warehouse, or Azure SQL DB, will then be a data source for the presentation and action layer. Business analysts can use Microsoft Power BI to analyze warehoused data. Other applications can be built upon the serving layer as well. For example, we can expose APIs based on the service layer data for third party uses. Box 2: Cosmos DB Change Feed Change feed support in Azure Cosmos DB works by listening to an Azure Cosmos DB container for any changes. It then outputs the sorted list of documents that were changed in the order in which they were modified. The change feed in Azure Cosmos DB enables you to build efficient and scalable solutions for each of these patterns, as shown in the following image:
QUESTION 7 You need to design the disaster recovery solution for customer sales data analytics. Which three actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Provision multiple Azure Databricks workspaces in separate Azure regions. B. Migrate users, notebooks, and cluster configurations from one workspace to another in the same region. C. Use zone redundant storage. D. Migrate users, notebooks, and cluster configurations from one region to another. E. Use Geo-redundant storage. F. Provision a second Azure Databricks workspace in the same region. Correct Answer: ADE Scenario: The analytics solution for customer sales data must be available during a regional outage. To create your own regional disaster recovery topology for data bricks, follow these requirements: Provision multiple Azure Databricks workspaces in separate Azure regions Use Geo-redundant storage. Once the secondary region is created, you must migrate the users, user folders, notebooks, cluster configuration, jobs configuration, libraries, storage, init scripts and reconfigure access control. Note: Geo-redundant storage (GRS) is designed to provide at least 99.99999999999999% (16 9\\’s) durability of objects over a given year by replicating your data to a secondary region that is hundreds of miles away from the primary region. If your storage account has GRS enabled, then your data is durable even in the case of a complete regional outage or a disaster in which the primary region isn\\’t recoverable. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-redundancy-grs
QUESTION 8 A company is developing a mission-critical line of business app that uses Azure SQL Database Managed Instance. You must design a disaster recovery strategy for the solution/You need to ensure that the database automatically recovers when the full or partial loss of the Azure SQL Database service occurs in the primary region. What should you recommend? A. Failover-group B. Azure SQL Data Sync C. SQL Replication D. Active geo-replication Correct Answer: A Auto-failover groups is a SQL Database feature that allows you to manage replication and failover of a group of databases on a SQL Database server or all databases in a Managed Instance to another region (currently in public preview for Managed Instance). It uses the same underlying technology as active geo-replication. You can initiate failover manually or you can delegate it to the SQL Database service based on a user-defined policy. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-auto-failover-group
QUESTION 9 You are designing a data storage solution for a database that is expected to grow to 50 TB. The usage pattern is singleton inserts, singleton updates, and reporting. Which storage solution should you use? A. Azure SQL. Database elastic pools B. Azure SQL Data Warehouse C. Azure Cosmos DB that uses the Gremlin API D. Azure SQL Database Hyperscale Correct Answer: D A Hyperscale database is an Azure SQL database in the Hyperscale service tier that is backed by the Hyperscale scaleout storage technology. A Hyperscale database supports up to 100 TB of data and provides high throughput and performance, as well as rapid scaling to adapt to the workload requirements. Scaling is transparent to the application ?connectivity, query processing, etc. work like any other Azure SQL database. Incorrect Answers: A: SQL Database elastic pools are a simple, cost-effective solution for managing and scaling multiple databases that have varying and unpredictable usage demands. The databases in an elastic pool are on a single Azure SQL Database server and share a set number of resources at a set price. Elastic pools in Azure SQL Database enable SaaS developers to optimize the price performance for a group of databases within a prescribed budget while delivering performance elasticity for each database. B: Rather than SQL Data Warehouse, consider other options for operational (OLTP) workloads that have large numbers of singleton selects. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-service-tier-hyperscale-faq
QUESTION 10 A company manufactures automobile parts. The company installs IoT sensors on manufacturing machinery. You must design a solution that analyzes data from the sensors. You need to recommend a solution that meets the following requirements: 1. Data must be analyzed in real-time. 2. Data queries must be deployed using continuous integration. 3. Data must be visualized by using charts and graphs. 4. Data must be available for ETL operations in the future. 5. The solution must support high-volume data ingestion. Which three actions should you recommend? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Use Azure Analysis Services to query the data. Output query results to Power BI. B. Configure an Azure Event Hub to capture data to Azure Data Lake Storage. C. Develop an Azure Stream Analytics application that queries the data and outputs to Power BI. Use Azure Data Factory to deploy the Azure Stream Analytics application. D. Develop an application that sends the IoT data to an Azure Event Hub. E. Develop an Azure Stream Analytics application that queries the data and outputs to Power BI. Use Azure Pipelines to deploy the Azure Stream Analytics application. F. Develop an application that sends the IoT data to an Azure Data Lake Storage container. Correct Answer: BCD
QUESTION 11 You are designing an application. You plan to use Azure SQL Database to support the application. The application will extract data from the Azure SQL Database and create text documents. The text documents will be placed into a cloud-based storage solution. The text storage solution must be accessible from an SMB network share. You need to recommend a data storage solution for the text documents. Which Azure data storage type should you recommend? A. Queue B. Files C. Blob D. Table Correct Answer: B Azure Files enables you to set up highly available network file shares that can be accessed by using the standard Server Message Block (SMB) protocol. Incorrect Answers: A: The Azure Queue service is used to store and retrieve messages. It is generally used to store lists of messages to be processed asynchronously. C: Blob storage is optimized for storing massive amounts of unstructured data, such as text or binary data. Blob storage can be accessed via HTTP or HTTPS but not via SMB. D: Azure Table storage is used to store large amounts of structured data. Azure tables are ideal for storing structured, non-relational data. References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/storage/common/storage-introductionhttps://docs.microsoft.com/enus/azure/storage/tables/table-storage-overview
QUESTION 12 You need to recommend the appropriate storage and processing solution? What should you recommend? A. Enable auto-shrink on the database. B. Flush the blob cache using Windows PowerShell. C. Enable Apache Spark RDD (RDD) caching. D. Enable Databricks IO (DBIO) caching. E. Configure the reading speed using Azure Data Studio. Correct Answer: C Scenario: You must be able to use a file system view of data stored in a blob. You must build an architecture that will allow Contoso to use the DB FS filesystem layer over a blob store. Databricks File System (DBFS) is a distributed file system installed on Azure Databricks clusters. Files in DBFS persist to Azure Blob storage, so you won\\’t lose data even after you terminate a cluster. The Databricks Delta cache, previously named Databricks IO (DBIO) caching, accelerates data reads by creating copies of remote files in nodes
QUESTION 13 Inventory levels must be calculated by subtracting the current day\\’s sales from the previous day\\’s final inventory. Which two options provide Litware with the ability to quickly calculate the current inventory levels by store and product? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Consume the output of the event hub by using Azure Stream Analytics and aggregate the data by store and product. Output the resulting data directly to Azure SQL Data Warehouse. Use Transact-SQL to calculate the inventory levels. B. Output Event Hubs Avro files to Azure Blob storage. Use Transact-SQL to calculate the inventory levels by using PolyBase in Azure SQL Data Warehouse. C. Consume the output of the event hub by using Databricks. Use Databricks to calculate the inventory levels and output the data to Azure SQL Data Warehouse. D. Consume the output of the event hub by using Azure Stream Analytics and aggregate the data by store and product. Output the resulting data into Databricks. Calculate the inventory levels in Databricks and output the data to Azure Blob storage. E. Output Event Hubs Avro files to Azure Blob storage. Trigger an Azure Data Factory copy activity to run every 10 minutes to load the data into Azure SQL Data Warehouse. Use Transact-SQL to aggregate the data by store and product. Correct Answer: AE A: Azure Stream Analytics is a fully managed service providing low-latency, highly available, scalable complex event processing over streaming data in the cloud. You can use your Azure SQL Data Warehouse database as an output sink for your Stream Analytics jobs. E: Event Hubs Capture is the easiest way to get data into Azure. Using Azure Data Lake, Azure Data Factory, and Azure HDInsight, you can perform batch processing and other analytics using familiar tools and platforms of your choosing, at any scale you need. Note: Event Hubs Capture creates files in Avro format. Captured data is written in Apache Avro format: a compact, fast, binary format that provides rich data structures with the inline schema. This format is widely used in the Hadoop ecosystem, Stream Analytics, and Azure Data Factory. Scenario: The application development team will create an Azure event hub to receive real-time sales data, including store number, date, time, product ID, customer loyalty number, price, and the discount amount, from the point of sale (POS) system and output the data to data storage in Azure. Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/sql-data-warehouse/sql-data-warehouse-integrate-azure-streamanalyticshttps://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/event-hubs/event-hubs-capture-overview
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QUESTION 1 HOTSPOT You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. You need to find all the general availability features for SharePoint Online. Which two options should you select on the Microsoft 365 Roadmap page? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 2 A company plans to migrate to Microsoft 365. Corporate devices run Windows 7 or Windows 10. You must upgrade all devices to use Office 365 ProPlus and minimize costs. You need to standardize corporate device deployments. Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Implement Windows AutoPilot B. Deploy policies by using Configuration Manager C. Upgrade all devices to Windows 10 D. Deploy policies by using Microsoft Intune E. Instruct users to download and install a Windows Installer package for Office 365 ProPlus Correct Answer: ACD
QUESTION 3 You need to identify which Microsoft platforms provide hybrid capabilities for migrating from an on-premises deployment. Which two platforms provide hybrid capabilities for migration? Each correct answer provides a complete solution. (Choose two.) NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Microsoft Skype for Business B. Microsoft Yammer C. Microsoft Exchange D. Microsoft Teams Correct Answer: AC Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/enterprise/architecture-of-microsoft-hybrid-cloud-scenarios
QUESTION 4 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 5 HOTSPOT You are a Microsoft 365 administrator. You need to implement the appropriate features for each scenario. What should you implement? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 7 HOTSPOT For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
QUESTION 8 You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. Users in the IT department must receive new Office 365 preview features before the features are deployed to other users in the company. You need to ensure only the users in the IT department receive preview features. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer represents part of the solution. (Choose two.) NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Instruct users to navigate to http://insider.office.com and sign up for Office Insider. B. Instruct users to update Office ProPlus. C. In the organizational profile set the update preference to Targeted release for selected users. D. Instruct users to uninstall Office ProPlus and then reinstall the software. E. In the organizational profile set the update preference to Standard release. Correct Answer: AC Reference: https://insider.office.com/en-us/ https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/manage/release-options-in-office-365?view=o365-worldwide
QUESTION 9 HOTSPOT You are the Microsoft Office 365 administrator for a company. The company has the following requirements: 1. Users must be able to use incompatible applications on a Windows 10 device. 2. Cloud-based applications must use the same credentials as on-premises applications. 3. Users must be prevented from copying company data from managed applications installed on unmanaged devices. You need to determine which technologies should be used for each requirement. Which technologies should be used? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. Hot Area:
QUESTION 10 A company deploys Microsoft Azure AD. You enable multi-factor authentication. You need to inform users about the multi-factor authentication methods that they can use. Which of the following methods is NOT a valid multi-factor authentication method in Microsoft 365? A. Receive an automated call on the desk phone that includes a verification code B. Insert a small card into a desktop computer and provide a PIN code when prompted C. Receive a call on a mobile phone and select the pound sign (#) when prompted D. Receive an SMS text message that includes a verification code Correct Answer: B Reference: http://techgenix.com/multifactor-authentication-office-365/
QUESTION 11 A company uses Microsoft 365. Employees report that their searches are failing in Microsoft Outlook. You need to determine the reason the searches are failing. What are two possible ways to achieve this goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. View the mailboxes list in the Exchange admin center. B. View the Exchange Online advisories in the Service health dashboard. C. View the email activity in the usage reports. D. Submit a service request in Support Assistant. Correct Answer: BD
QUESTION 12 You are the Microsoft 365 administrator for a company. Which two admin roles can purchase more licenses? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. service administrator B. user management administrator C. global administrator D. billing administrator Correct Answer: CD Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/admin/subscriptions-and-billing/buylicenses?view=o365-worldwide
QUESTION 13 This question requires that you evaluate the underlined text to determine if it is correct. Microsoft 365 is a Platform as a service (PaaS). Review the underlined text. If it makes the statement correct, select “No change is needed.” If the statement is incorrect, select the answer choice that makes the statement correct. A. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) B. Windows as a service (WaaS) C. Software as a service (Saas) D. No change is needed Correct Answer: C Microsoft 365 is SaaS, which provides an online version of MS Office Suite (Office Web Apps) along with SharePoint Server, Exchange Server and Lync Server. Reference: https://www.cmswire.com/cms/information-management/cloud-service-models-iaas-saas-paas-howmicrosoft-office-365-azure-fit-in-021672.php
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QUESTION 1 DRAG DROP You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application in Visual Studio.
The application contains an area that is defined as shown in the following graphic. The ActionLink method must invoke the GetOrders() action in ExternalOrderController. You need to configure the parameters of the ActionLink method. You have the following markup.
Which markup segments should you include in Target 1, Target 2 and Target 3 to complete the markup? To answer, drag the appropriate markup segment to the correct targets. Each markup segment may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content. Select and Place:
Target 1: the action is getOrders Target 2: the controller is ExternalOrderController Target 3: The area is External LinkExtensions.ActionLink Method (HtmlHelper, String, String, String, RouteValueDictionary, IDictionary) Use: Html.ActionLink(“Text”, “ActionName”, “ControllerName”, new { Area = “AreaName” }, null) Reference: How to specify an area name in an active link? http://stackoverflow.com/questions/2036305/how-to-specify-an-area-name-in-an-action-link
QUESTION 2 You are developing an ASP.NET Core web application. The web application requires sensitive configuration data. The web application will be tested in an Acceptance Test environment. The Acceptance Test environment must be identical to the production environment. You need to protect the configuration data. What should you use? A. Secret Manager tool B. Configuration API C. Microsoft Azure Key Vault configuration provider D. environment variables Correct Answer: D https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/aspnet/core/security/app-secrets?view=aspnetcore-2.2andtabs=windows
QUESTION 3 You are developing an application that uses many small images. When the images load, the application runs slowly. You need to improve the performance of the application. What should you do? A. Preload all the images when the application starts to ensure that the images are cached. B. Convert the images to ICO file format and stream all images on a single connection. C. Host all images on a Microsoft Azure web role with multiple instances. D. Combine all the images into a single image and use CSS to create sprites. Correct Answer: D Because browsers limit how many concurrent HTTP requests they make to a website, a web page with many small icon images can result in a longer load time. You can combine many small images into a single larger image – a CSS sprite using the free ASP.NET Sprite and Image Optimization Library available from Microsoft. References:
QUESTION 4 You are developing an application that uses many small images for various aspects of the interface. The application responds slowly when additional resources are being accessed. You need to improve the performance of the application. What should you do? A. Preload all the images when the client connects to ensure that the images are cached. B. Combine all the images into a single image and use CSS to create sprites. C. Host all images on an alternate server and provide a CDN. D. Convert the images to .png file format and stream all images on a single connection. Correct Answer: C
QUESTION 5 You updated the web. config file with the HTTP run-time value required to display an alternative version of the site. You need to ensure that the correct page displays to the users. Which code segment should you use to update the controller? A. If (Request.IsTabletDevice) B. If (Request.Browser.IsBrowser(“Mobile”)) C. If (Request.UserAgent[“Tablet”]) D. If (Request.Browser.IsMobileDevice) Correct Answer: D
QUESTION 6 You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application uses a SQL Server database and a SQL Server login and password. You need to ensure that the password for the SQL Server login is not stored in plain text. Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. A. Encrypt the connection string by using aspnet_regiis.exe. B. Ensure that there is a valid machineKey element in the web. config file. C. Ensure that there is a valid encryption key element in the web. config file. D. Encrypt the connection string by using aspnet_wp.exe. Correct Answer: AC https://weblogs.asp.net/owscott/421063
QUESTION 7 You have been instructed to meet the business requirements with regard to security. You are required to make changes to the CyclingLogController. Which of the following actions should you take? A. You should consider adding code to assign users the Administrator role. B. You should consider adding code to assign users the Advanced Operator role. C. You should consider adding code to assign users the Author role. D. You should consider adding code to assign users the Report Security Administrator role. Correct Answer: A
QUESTION 8 You are developing an ASP.NET Core MVC web application. The web application must support older web browsers and implemented JavaScript features. You must use a polyfill to support the JavaScript Promise object in all browsers. You need to implement a built-in ASP.NET Core Tag Helper to support polyfills. How should you complete the markup? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point. Hot Area:
Correct Answer:
QUESTION 9 You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application. The application must allow users to enter JavaScript in a feedback text box only. You need to disable request validation. What should you do? A. Apply and set the CausesClientSideValidation attribute on the text box to FALSE. B. Apply and set the ValidateInput attribute on the text box to FALSE. C. Use the HttpRequest.Unvalidated property to read the unvalidated form value. D. Use the HttpRequest.Form property to read the unvalidated form value. Correct Answer: C The HttpRequest.The unvalidated property gets the HTTP request values without triggering request validation. Request validation checks for HTML markup and script that might indicate a potential cross-site scripting attack. By default, all values are checked using request validation and if any values contain markup or script, ASP.NET throws an HttpRequestValidationException exception. Use this method if you anticipate that the request will contain markup (for example, you are allowing users to post content that contains markup) and you want to get the raw value of a request. References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/system.web.httprequest.unvalidated.aspx
QUESTION 10 DRAG DROP You are developing an ASP.NET MVC application that takes customer orders. Orders are restricted to customers with IP addresses based in the United States. You need to implement a custom route handler. How should you implement the route handler? (To answer, drag the appropriate line of code to the correct location or locations. Each line of code may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.) Select and Place:
Correct Answer
This class implements IRouteHandler and has only one method “GetHttpHandler”. The main purpose of this class is to return the instance of CustomHandler class. In the constructor, we are passing the RequestContext to the handler. { public class CustomRouteHandler : IRouteHandler { public IHttpHandler GetHttpHandler(RequestContext requestContext) { return new CustomHandler(requestContext); } } References: http://msdn.microsoft.com/enus/library/system.web.routing.iroutehandler.gethttphandler.aspx
QUESTION 11 You are developing a new ASP.NET MVC application that will be hosted on Microsoft Azure. You need to implement caching. The caching solution must support the following:
You need to select a cache solution. Which caching solution should you choose? A. ASP.NET Caching B. Azure In-Role Cache C. Azure Redis Cache D. Azure Managed Cache Service Correct Answer: C References:
QUESTION 12 You are developing an ASP.NET Core MVC web application that provides assets to external websites including images, JavaScript scripts and text files. The external websites must be able to make full use of assets provided to them by the web application, including JavaScript asynchronous HTTP requests. Pages that refer to the images and text files do not load. External websites are unable to use assets. You need to resolve the issues. What should you do? A. Add an MVC controller and action to load the files from the folder. B. In the startup Configure method, call IApplicationBuilder. Use StaticFiles for the folder that contains the files. C. In the startup ConfigureServices method, call IServiceCollection. Add DirectoryBrowser for the folder that contains the files. D. Mark vendor-provided files as content and set the value for Copy to Output Directory to CopyAlways. Correct Answer: B References: https://docs.microsoft.com/enus/aspnet/core/fundamentals/middleware/?view=aspnetcore-2.1andtabs=aspnetcore2x
QUESTION 13 You are designing a data-oriented application that features a variety of storage schemas. The application object model must be mapped to the various storage schemas. You need to enable developers to manipulate the data. Which ADO.NET data access strategy should you use? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.) A. LINQ to SQL B. Entity Framework C. DataAdapter D. DataReader Correct Answer: ABC
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