The latest update of Cisco CCNP 350-701 exam dumps contains PDF and VCE from Lead4pass

Categories: 350-701 dumps 350-701 exam questions 350-701 Implementing and Operating Cisco Security Core Technologies 350-701 practice test 350-701 SCOR CCNP Cisco UncategorizedAuthor examPosted on

We update the Cisco CCNP 350-701 exam questions and answers once or twice a month!
All questions and answers are not continuous, because all questions and answers are being updated!
It is impossible for us to update from the first question to a few hundred questions or more. Such an update is definitely not a valid question.
So you are lucky! Every update you get here is instant and effective. For all free Cisco certification exam practice questions, please visit: Vcecert.com

Implementing Cisco Collaboration Cloud and Edge Solutions (CLCEI) exam code “350-701”.
This exam verifies your technical task ability to “Network security; Cloud security; Content security; Endpoint protection and detection; Secure network access; Visibility and enforcement”.
Pass Cisco CCNP 350-701 exam in the Lead4Pass CCNP 350-701 exam dumps. Visit Lead4pass CCNP 350-701: https://www.lead4pass.com/350-701.html (Total Questions: 333 Q&A).
All exam questions and answers have been updated and corrected It is guaranteed to be effective immediately.

Cisco CCNP 350-701 exam PDF download online in google cloud

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lsDJ5oV89Bbxtr5o8k0OTRg6vYtQE5D7/

The latest update of Cisco CCNP 350-701 online practice test

Verify your strength, all answers are at the end of the article

QUESTION 1

How many interfaces per bridge group does an ASA bridge group deployment support?

A. up to 16
B. up to 8
C. up to 4
D. up to 2

 

QUESTION 2

Which term describes when the Cisco Firepower downloads threat intelligence updates from Cisco Talos?

A. authoring
B. consumption
C. sharing
D. analysis

 

QUESTION 3

Which Cisco product is open, scalable, and built on IETF standards to allow multiple security products from Cisco and
other vendors to share data and interoperate with each other?

A. Platform Exchange Grid
B. Advanced Malware Protection
C. Multifactor Platform Integration
D. Firepower Threat Defense

 

QUESTION 4

An organization is receiving SPAM emails from a known malicious domain. What must be configured in order to prevent the session during the initial TCP communication?

A. Configure the Cisco ESA to drop the malicious emails.
B. Configure policies to quarantine malicious emails.
C. Configure policies to stop and reject communication
D. Configure the Cisco ESA to reset the TCP connection.
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/email-security-appliance/118214-configure-esa-00.html

 

QUESTION 5

Which capability is exclusive to a Cisco AMP public cloud instance as compared to a private cloud instance?

A. RBAC
B. ETHOS detection engine
C. SPERO detection engine
D. TETRA detection engine

 

QUESTION 6

Which Cisco command enables authentication, authorization, and accounting globally so that CoA is supported on the
device?

A. ip device-tracking
B. aaa new-model
C. aaa server radius dynamic-author
D. auth-type all

 

QUESTION 7

Which two capabilities does TAXII support? (Choose two.)

A. exchange
B. pull messaging
C. binding
D. correlation
E. mitigating

 

QUESTION 8

An organization is implementing URL blocking using Cisco Umbrella. The users are able to go to some sites but other
sites are not accessible due to an error. Why is the error occurring?

A. Client computers do not have the Cisco Umbrella Root CA certificate installed.
B. IP-Layer Enforcement is not configured.
C. Intelligent proxy and SSL decryption is disabled in the policy.
D. Client computers do not have an SSL certificate deployed from an internal CA server.
https://support.umbrella.com/hc/en-us/articles/115004564126-SSL-Decryption-in-the-Intelligent-Proxy

 

QUESTION 9

What is a feature of the open platform capabilities of Cisco DNA Center?

A. domain integration
B. intent-based APIs
C. automation adapters
D. application adapters

 

QUESTION 10

DRAG DROP
Drag and drop the capabilities of Cisco Firepower versus Cisco AMP from the left into the appropriate category on the
right. Select and Place:

cisco 350-701 exam questions q10

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-701 exam questions q10-1

 

QUESTION 11

Which threat involves software being used to gain unauthorized access to a computer system?

A. ping of death
B. NTP amplification
C. HTTP flood
D. virus

 

QUESTION 12

Refer to the exhibit. Traffic is not passing through IPsec site-to-site VPN on the Firepower Threat Defense
appliance.What is causing this issue?

cisco 350-701 exam questions q12

A. Site-to-site VPN peers are using different encryption algorithms.
B. Site-to-site VPN preshared keys are mismatched.
C. No split-tunnel policy is defined on the Firepower Threat Defense appliance.
D. The access control policy is not allowing VPN traffic in.

 

QUESTION 13

Which policy is used to capture host information on the Cisco Firepower Next Generation Intrusion Prevention System?

A. correlation
B. intrusion
C. access control
D. network discovery

 

QUESTION 14

Which group within Cisco writes and publishes a weekly newsletter to help cybersecurity professionals remain aware of
the ongoing and most prevalent threats?

A. PSIRT
B. DEVNET
C. CSIRT
D. Talos

 

QUESTION 15

What does Cisco AMP for Endpoints use to help an organization detect different families of malware?

A. Tetra Engine to detect malware when the endpoint is connected to the cloud
B. ClamAV Engine to perform email scanning
C. Spero Engine with machine learning to perform dynamic analysis
D. Ethos Engine to perform fuzzy fingerprinting
Reference: https://www.ciscolive.com/c/dam/r/ciscolive/emea/docs/2016/pdf/BRKSEC-2139.pdf

Result:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q11Q12Q13Q14Q15
BDACBBBCABImageDDDDC

Cisco CCNP 350-701 exam questions and answers have been updated and corrected.
Get the complete Cisco CCNP 350-701 exam dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/350-701.html (PDF +VCE) 100% pass Cisco 350-701 exam.

ps.

Cisco CCNP 350-701 exam PDF download online in google cloud
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1lsDJ5oV89Bbxtr5o8k0OTRg6vYtQE5D7/

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The latest update of Microsoft MS-203 exam dumps contains PDF and VCE from Lead4pass

Categories: Microsoft Microsoft Role-based ms-203 exam dumps ms-203 exam pdf ms-203 exam questions ms-203 Microsoft 365 Messaging ms-203 practice test UncategorizedAuthor examPosted on

We update the Microsoft MS-203 exam questions and answers once or twice a month!
All questions and answers are not continuous, because all questions and answers are being updated!
It is impossible for us to update from the first question to a few hundred questions or more. Such an update is definitely not a valid question. So you are lucky! Every update you get here is instant and effective. For all free Microsoft certification exam practice questions, please visit: Fulldumps.com

Microsoft 365 Messaging exam code “MS-203”.
This exam verifies your technical task ability to “manage organizational settings and resources; plan and manage the mail architecture; plan and implement a hybrid configuration and migration; and secure the messaging environment”.
Pass Microsoft MS-203 exam in the Lead4Pass MS-203 exam dumps. Visit Lead4pass MS-203: https://www.lead4pass.com/ms-203.html (Total Questions: 213 Q&A).
All exam questions and answers have been updated and corrected It is guaranteed to be effective immediately.

Microsoft MS-203 exam PDF download online in google cloud

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1fzrpX9PdLbBfhEB_0MYtU9AUGfklXAGZ/

The latest update of Microsoft MS-203 online practice test

Verify your strength, all answers are at the end of the article

QUESTION 1
You manage an Exchange Online tenant.
You plan to migrate on-premises Microsoft Exchange Server mailboxes by using a cutover migration.
You need to grant the required permissions to the migration administrator account to complete the migration. The
solution must use the principle of least privilege.
Which three permissions should you grant? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. the FullAccess permission on each on-premises mailbox and the WriteProperty permission to modify the
TargetAddress property of the on-premises user account
B. the Receive As permission on the on-premises mailbox database that stores the user mailboxes and the
WriteProperty permission to modify the TargetAddress property of the on-premises user account
C. Domain Admins group member in Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) of the on-premises Exchange
organization
D. the FullAccess permission on each on-premises mailbox
E. the Receive As permission on the on-premises mailbox database that stores the user mailboxes
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/mailbox-migration/assign-permissions-for-migration

 

QUESTION 2
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains 200 mailboxes.
You need to add a second email address to each mailbox. The address must have a syntax that uses the first letter of
each user\\’s last name, followed by the user\\’s first name, and then @fabrikam.com.
Solution: You convert all the mailboxes to shared mailboxes, and then you run the Set-Mailbox cmdlet and specify the
-EmailAddressPolicyEnabled $false parameter.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Email address policies define the rules that create email addresses for recipients in your Exchange organization. The
basic components of an email address policy are:
1. Email address templates: Define the email address format for the recipients (for example @contoso.com or
[email protected]).
2. Recipient filter: Specifies the recipients whose email addresses are configured by the policy.
3. Priority: Specifies the order to apply the email address policies (important if a recipient is identified by more than one policy). The EmailAddressPolicyEnabled parameter specifies whether to apply email address policies to this recipient.
Valid values are:
1. $true: Email address policies are applied to this recipient. This is the default value.
2. $false: Email address policies aren\\’t applied to this recipient.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/email-address-policies/email-addresspolicies?view=exchserver-2019

 

QUESTION 3
You have a Microsoft 365 environment that contains 1,000 mailboxes.
You need to ensure that only an administrator named Admin1 can use the Exchange Management Shell to manage
Exchange Online settings.
What should you do?
A. For Admin1, run the Set-User cmdlet and specify the -RemotePowerShellEnabled parameter.
B. Create a conditional access policy and apply the policy to all users.
C. Create a conditional access policy and apply the policy to Admin1.
D. For all users, run the Set-User cmdlet and specify the -RemotePowerShellEnabled parameter.


QUESTION 4
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You are auditing the Litigation Hold on the mailboxes of the company\\’s research and development department.
You discover that the mailbox of a user named User1 has a Litigation Hold enabled.
You need to discover who placed the Litigation Hold on the mailbox of User1, and when the Litigation Hold was
enabled.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From the Exchange admin center, run a per-mailbox Litigation Hold report.
B. From PowerShell, run the Get-Mailbox cmdlet.
C. From PowerShell, run the Get-MailboxStatistics cmdlet.
D. From the Exchange admin center, run an In-place eDiscovery and Hold report.

 

QUESTION 5
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization that contains 5,000 mailboxes.
You need to migrate 1,000 users to Exchange Online. The migrated users must support Hybrid Modern Authentication
(HMA).
Which migration method should you use?
A. cutover migration
B. full hybrid migration
C. minimal hybrid migration
D. express hybrid migration

QUESTION 6
You have 1,000 user accounts that are each licensed for Microsoft 365. Each user account has a Microsoft Exchange
Online mailbox.
Ten of the user accounts are configured as service accounts for applications. The applications send event notifications
to the mailboxes of the service accounts by using SMTP. The developers of each application have delegated access to
the mailbox of their respective application. You need to ensure that all the event notifications sent by the applications
are retained in the service account mailboxes so that new developers can review older notifications. The developers
must be able to view only the notifications for their respective application. What should you do?
A. Replace the service account mailboxes with a single user mailbox that contains a folder for each application.
B. Replace the service account mailboxes with a single user mailbox that contains Power Automate rules.
C. Convert the service account mailboxes into shared mailboxes.
D. Convert the service account mailboxes into mail-enabled users.


QUESTION 7
You need to recommend a procedure for closing the Brussels office that meets the technical requirements. What should you recommend?
A. In the main office, deploy an Exchange Server 2016 server that has the Unified Messaging role installed, and then
move the mailboxes from the Brussels office to the new server.
B. Deploy a Microsoft Skype for Business 2019 server to the main office, and then move the mailboxes from the
Brussels office to an Exchange Server 2019 server in the main office.
C. Implement a new mailbox database on an Exchange Server 2019 server in the main office, and then move the
mailboxes from the Brussels office to the new mailbox database.
D. Implement a new database availability group (DAG) that contains the server in the Brussels office and a new
Exchange Server 2019 server in the main office, and then create a mailbox database copy on the new server in the
main office.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/architecture/mailbox-servers/manage-mailboxmoves?view=exchserver-2019 https://theitbros.com/move-exchange-mailboxes-to-another-database/

 

QUESTION 8
You have a hybrid deployment that contains a Microsoft Exchange Online tenant and an on-premises Exchange Server
2019 server named Server1. All users use an email address suffix of @contoso.com.
On Server1, you create a new mailbox that uses an email address of [email protected]
Users hosted in Exchange Online report that they receive a non-delivery report (NDR) when they attempt to send email
messages to [email protected] The NDR contains the following text: “User1 wasn\\’t found at contoso.com.”
You verify that the Exchange Online users can send email successfully to the other mailboxes hosted on Server1. Users
hosted on Server1 can send email to [email protected] successfully.
You need to identify what causes the email delivery to fail.
What should you use?
A. the Exchange admin center
B. the on-premises Exchange admin center
C. Azure AD Connect Health
D. the Azure Active Directory admin center
It\\’s likely that the new user account hasn\\’t replicated to Azure Active Directory. Azure AD Connect is responsible for
account replication between on-prem AD and Azure AD.

 

QUESTION 9
You have a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 organization.
You need to provide a user named User1 with the ability to create and manage transport rules.
To which management role group should you add User1?
A. Server Management
B. Compliance Management
C. Records Management
D. Hygiene Management
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/records-management-exchange-2013-help

 

QUESTION 10
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
Several users report today that they cannot access email from their mobile device. They successfully accessed their
email from the same device yesterday.
You need to identify which mobile device access rule applies to the devices.
Which cmdlet should you run?
A. Get-DeviceTenantRule
B. Get-ActiveSyncOrganizationSettings
C. Get-MobileDevice
D. Get-MobileDeviceMailboxPolicy
The Get-MobileDevice cmdlet returns identification, configuration, and status information for each mobile device.
Note: The Get-MobileDeviceStatistics cmdlet can also be used.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/devices/get-mobiledevice?view=exchange-ps

 

QUESTION 11
DRAG DROP
You have a Microsoft Exchange Online tenant.
You need to import PST files from a legacy archiving solution to Exchange Online. You will import the PST files over the
internet.
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

microsoft ms-203 exam questions q11

Correct Answer:

microsoft ms-203 exam questions q11-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/compliance/use-network-upload-to-import-pstfiles?view=o365-worldwide


QUESTION 12
Your company has a Microsoft Exchange Server 2019 hybrid deployment.
Users in the advertising department and the editorial department of the company have mailboxes in Exchange Online.
A company policy requires that the advertising department users and the editorial department users be segmented
based on the following requirements:
1.
The advertising department users must not see the editorial department users in the global address list (GAL).
2.
The editorial department users must not see the advertising department users in the GAL.
3.
The editorial department users must be treated as external recipients of the advertising department users.
4.
The advertising department users must be treated as external recipients of the editorial department users.
You need to recommend a solution that meets the requirements and minimizes costs and effort.
What should you recommend?
A. Migrate all the mailboxes of the advertising department to the on-premises organization, and then enable address
book policy (ABP) routing.
B. In the Exchange Online tenant, create separate address book policies (ABPs) for the advertising and editorial
departments.
C. Purchase an additional Microsoft 365 subscription, and then migrate all the mailboxes of the advertising department
to the new subscription.
D. Create two address book policies (ABPs) in Exchange Online, and then enable ABP routing for the Exchange Online
tenant.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/exchange/email-addresses-and-address-books/address-book-policies/address-bookpolicies?view=exchserver-2019

 

QUESTION 13
HOTSPOT
Your network contains an Active Directory forest named contoso.com.
You plan to implement Microsoft 365 and use Microsoft Exchange Online services.
You need to ensure that all client computers can use Autodiscover to connect to Microsoft 365.
Which record should you create? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft ms-203 exam questions q13

Correct Answer:

microsoft ms-203 exam questions q13-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/enterprise/external-domain-name-systemrecords?view=o365-worldwide

 

QUESTION 14
HOTSPOT
You need to implement a solution that meets the technical requirements for the retention of junk email, sent items, and deleted items.
What is the minimum number of retention policies and retention tags you should use? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft ms-203 exam questions q14

Correct Answer:

microsoft ms-203 exam questions q14-1

 

QUESTION 15
HOTSPOT
Your company has an Exchange Online tenant.
A partner company named Fourth Coffee also uses Exchange Online.
You need to ensure that the users at your company share free busy information with the users at Fourth Coffee. The
solution must ensure that the meeting details included in the calendars of your company users remain hidden from the
Fourth Coffee users.
How should you complete the command? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:microsoft ms-203 exam questions q15

Correct Answer:

microsoft ms-203 exam questions q15-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/neworganizationrelationship?view=exchange-ps

Result:

Q1Q2Q3Q4Q5Q6Q7Q8Q9Q10Q12
CDEBBACBCCCCCD

Microsoft MS-203 exam questions and answers have been updated and corrected.
Get the complete Microsoft MS-203 exam dumps https://www.lead4pass.com/ms-203.html (PDF +VCE) 100% pass Microsoft MS-203 exam.

ps.

Microsoft MS-203 exam PDF download online in google cloud
https://drive.google.com/file/d/1fzrpX9PdLbBfhEB_0MYtU9AUGfklXAGZ/

Tags: , , ,

The latest update of Microsoft MS-101 exam dumps contains PDF and VCE from Lead4pass

Categories: Microsoft Microsoft 365 Certified: ms-101 Microsoft Role-based ms-101 dumps ms-101 exam questions ms-101 Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security ms-101 practice test UncategorizedAuthor examPosted on

We update the Microsoft MS-101 exam questions and answers once or twice a month!
All questions and answers are not continuous, because all questions and answers are being updated!
It is impossible for us to update from the first question to a few hundred questions or more. Such an update is definitely not a valid question. So you are lucky! Every update you get here is instant and effective. For all free Microsoft certification exam practice questions, please visit: Fulldumps.com

Microsoft 365 Mobility and Security exam code “MS-101”.
This exam verifies your technical task ability to “implement modern device services; implement Microsoft 365 security and threat management, and manage Microsoft 365 governance and compliance”. Pass Microsoft MS-101 exam in the Lead4Pass MS-101 exam dumps. Visit Lead4pass MS-101: https://www.lead4pass.com/ms-101.html (Total Questions: 340 Q&A). All exam questions and answers have been updated and corrected It is guaranteed to be effective immediately.

Microsoft MS-101 Exam PDF download online in google cloud

https://drive.google.com/file/d/1qaNPEmj9YfuIf7rcK_NwaCnRUZPW17aU/view?usp=sharing

The latest update of Microsoft MS-101 online practice test

QUESTION 1
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a new Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to prevent users from sending email messages that contain Personally Identifiable Information (PII).
Solution: From the Cloud App Security admin center, you create an access policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 2
You need to meet the Intune requirements for the Windows 10 devices.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft ms-101 exam questions q2

Correct Answer:

microsoft ms-101 exam questions q2-1

 

QUESTION 3
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com. You create an Azure Advanced
Threat Protection (ATP) workspace named Workspace1. The tenant contains the users shown in the following table.

microsoft ms-101 exam questions q3

You need to modify the configuration of the Azure ATP sensors.
Solution: You instruct User2 to modify the Azure ATP sensor configuration.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
You have a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.
You need to delegate eDiscovery tasks as shown in the following table.microsoft ms-101 exam questions q4

The solution must follow the principle of the least privilege.
To which role group should you assign each user? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft ms-101 exam questions q4-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft ms-101 exam questions q4-2

References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/assign-ediscovery-permissions

 

QUESTION 5
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com.
You create an Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP) workspace named Workspace1.

microsoft ms-101 exam questions q5

The tenant contains the users shown in the following table.
You need to modify the configuration of the Azure ATP sensors.
Solution: You instruct User1 to modify the Azure ATP sensor configuration.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
Only Azure ATP administrators can modify the sensors.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure-advanced-threat-protection/atp-role-groups

 

QUESTION 6
You have Microsoft 365 subscription.
You create an alert policy as shown in the following exhibit.microsoft ms-101 exam questions q6

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft ms-101 exam questions q6-1

Correct Answer:

microsoft ms-101 exam questions q6-2

 

QUESTION 7
Your company uses on-premises Windows Server File Classification Infrastructure (FCI). Some documents on the onpremises file servers are classified as Confidential.
You migrate the files from the on-premises file servers to Microsoft SharePoint Online.
You need to ensure that you can implement data loss prevention (DLP) policies for the uploaded file based on the
Confidential classification.
What should you do first?
A. From the SharePoint admin center, configure hybrid search.
B. From the SharePoint admin center, create a managed property.
C. From the Security and Compliance Center PowerShell, run the New-DataClassification cmdlet.
D. From the Security and Compliance Center PowerShell, run the New-DlpComplianceRule cmdlet.
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/policy-and-compliance-dlp/newdataclassification?view=exchange-ps

 

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are deploying Microsoft Intune.
You successfully enroll Windows 10 devices in Intune.
When you try to enroll an iOS device in Intune, you get an error.
You need to ensure that you can enroll the iOS device in Intune.
Solution: You configure the Mobility (MDM and MAM) settings.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
You create a Microsoft 36S subscription.
You need to create a deployment plan for Microsoft Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP).
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:microsoft ms-101 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

microsoft ms-101 exam questions q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
You have retention policies in Microsoft 365 as shown in the following table.microsoft ms-101 exam questions q10

Policy1 is configured as shown in the Policy1exhibit. (Click the Policy1 lab.) Policy2 is configured as shown in the
Policy2 exhibit. (Click the Policy2 tab.)

microsoft ms-101 exam questions q10-1 microsoft ms-101 exam questions q10-2

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft ms-101 exam questions q10-3

Correct Answer:

microsoft ms-101 exam questions q10-4

 

QUESTION 11
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to prevent users from accessing your Microsoft SharePoint Online sites unless the users are connected to
your on-premises network.
Solution: From the Azure Active Directory admin center, you create a trusted location and a conditional access policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
This solution applies to users accessing Azure Active Directory, not to users accessing SharePoint Online. Conditional
Access in SharePoint Online can be configured to use an IP Address white list to allow access.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/active-directory/conditional-access/location-condition
https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/Microsoft-SharePoint-Blog/Conditional-Access-in-SharePoint-Online-andOneDrive-for/ba-p/46678


QUESTION 12
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You have a group named Support. Users in the Support group frequently send email messages to external users.
The manager of the Support group wants to randomly review messages that contain attachments.
You need to provide the manager with the ability to review messages that contain attachments sent from the Support
group users to external users. The manager must have access to only 10 percent of the messages.
What should you do? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

microsoft ms-101 exam questions q12

Correct Answer:

microsoft ms-101 exam questions q12-1

 

QUESTION 13
You need to notify the manager of the human resources department when a user in the department shares a file or
folder from the department\\’s Microsoft SharePoint site. What should you do?
A. From the Security and Compliance admin center, create an alert policy.
B. From the SharePoint site, create an alert.
C. From the SharePoint admin center, modify the sharing settings.
D. From the Security and Compliance admin center, create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy.
Correct Answer: A
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/create-activity-alerts

 

QUESTION 14
You need to ensure that User1 can enroll the devices to meet the technical requirements. What should you do?
A. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, assign User1 the Cloud device administrator rote.
B. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, configure the Maximum number of devices per user setting.
C. From the Intune admin center, add User1 as a device enrollment manager.
D. From the Intune admin center, configure the Enrollment restrictions.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sccm/mdm/deploy-use/enroll-devices-with-device-enrollment-manager

 

QUESTION 15
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named
contoso.com. The company stores 2 TBs of data in SharePoint Online document libraries. The tenant has the labels
shown in the following table.microsoft ms-101 exam questions q15

Correct Answer:

microsoft ms-101 exam questions q15-1

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latest updated Microsoft MS-700 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You plan to configure the environment to allow external users to collaborate in Microsoft Teams by using guest access.
The company implements a new security policy that has the following requirements:
Only guest users from specific domains must be allowed to connect to collaborate by using Microsoft Teams.
Guest users must be prevented from inviting other guests.
You need to recommend a solution to meet the security policy requirements.
Solution: From the Azure Active Directory, you modify the External collaboration settings.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
You company has a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses Phone System and Calling Plans.
You plan to implement a toll phone number for the helpdesk.
You need to implement the following call features for the helpdesk phone number:
Must include a greeting and hold music
Must bypass menu options when a call is established to the helpdesk
What two resources should you create? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a call queue
B. a call park
C. an auto attendant
D. a resource account
E. a calling policy
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/create-a-phone-system-call-queue

QUESTION 3
Your company has a Microsoft 365 tenant.
Guest users report that they cannot access files or Microsoft OneNote from Microsoft Teams. The guest users can
access channels, chats, and conversations.
You need to ensure that the guest users can access the files and OneNote from Microsoft Teams.
For what should you configure external sharing?
A. Microsoft Teams
B. Microsoft SharePoint Online
C. Microsoft OneDrive for Business
D. Microsoft Yammer.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You need to configure Microsoft Teams to meet the department upgrade requirements.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if that statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:[2021.1] lead4pass ms-700 exam questions q4

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass ms-700 exam questions q4-1

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/teams-and-skypeforbusiness-coexistence-andinteroperability

QUESTION 5
You have an org-wide team named Team1.
The members of Team1 report that they receive an excessive amount of notifications from channel messages.
You need to reduce the amount of notifications by implementing the following changes:
Allow only global administrators to create new posts in the General channel.
Prevent @members for the org-wide team members.
Which two actions should you perform from the Microsoft Teams client? Each correct answer presents part of the
solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From the Team1 settings, clear Give members the option to edit their messages.
B. From the General Channel settings of Team1, set the channel moderation preference to Anyone can post; show alert
that postings will notify everyone (recommended for large teams).
C. From the General Channel settings of Team1 set the channel moderation preference to Only owners can post
messages.
D. From the Team1 settings, disable all the Fun stuff settings.
E. From the Team1 settings set Show members the option to @team or @[team name] to Off.
Correct Answer: CE
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoftteams/create-an-org-wide-team

QUESTION 6
You need to resolve the membership issues for the two pilot users. What should you do?
A. Modify the department attribute of both users.
B. Invite both users to the HR team.
C. Add both users to the HR group.
D. Modify the privacy level of the HR team.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 7
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You have a team that uses the following dynamic rule[2021.1] lead4pass ms-700 exam questions q7

Which user will be included in the group?
A. A guest user in a department named Global Sales that has the country attribute set to the USA.
B. A member user in a department named Marketing Division that has the country attribute set to the USA.
C. A member user in a department named Marketing/Sales that has the country attribute set to the US.
D. A guest user in a department named US Marketing Division that has the country attribute set to the US.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 8
You need to configure the environment to meet the technical requirements for guest users. What should you modify
from the Microsoft Teams admin center?
A. the global app permission policy
B. the Org-wide settings
C. the global meeting policy
D. the global messaging policy
Correct Answer: B
Microsoft Teams admin center > Org-wide settings > Guest access > Make private calls = off.

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
Your company has a Microsoft Office 365 subscription.
The company has three departments. Each department contains a group as shown in the following table.[2021.1] lead4pass ms-700 exam questions q9

You plan to create a team for each group.
You need to ensure that a team can be created for each group. The solution must minimize administrative effort.
What should you do to each group? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

[2021.1] lead4pass ms-700 exam questions q9-1

Correct Answer:

[2021.1] lead4pass ms-700 exam questions q9-2

QUESTION 10
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
From the Microsoft Teams client, you review the teams shown in the exhibit. (Click the Exhibit tab.)[2021.1] lead4pass ms-700 exam questions q10

Members of the Retail team report that they cannot create channels.
You need to ensure that the Retail team members can create channels.
Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. From the Azure Active Directory admin center, change the membership type of the Office 365 group for the Retail
team to Assigned.
B. From the Microsoft Teams client, promote all the Retail team members to an owner role.
C. From the Microsoft Teams admin center, unarchive the Retail team.
D. Instruct the Retail team owner to restore the team by using the Microsoft Teams client.
E. From PowerShell, modify the information barrier policy.
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
The company plans to host Microsoft Teams live events for groups of users larger than 5,000.
You need to recommend a solution that minimizes the bandwidth required to stream the events.
What should you include in the recommendation?
A. a Session Border Controller (SBC)
B. a third-party encoder
C. an eCDN provider
D. a Cloud Video Interop (CVI)
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/stream/network-overview

QUESTION 12
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to prevent a user named User1 from permanently deleting private chats in Microsoft Teams.
Solution: You create an In-Place Hold for the Microsoft SharePoint site used by Microsoft Team.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 13
You need to configure the IP phones to meet the device requirements. What is the minimum number of configuration
profiles you should create?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
You have an existing Azure IoT hub.
You need to connect physical IoT devices to the IoT hub.
You are connecting the devices through a firewall that allows only port 443 and port 80.
Which of following three communication protocols can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. HTTPS
B. MQTT
C. AMQP over WebSocket
D. MQTT over WebSocket
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 2
You have an Azure IoT hub that uses a Device Provision Service instance.
You plan to deploy 100 IoT devices.
You need to confirm the identity of the devices by using the Device Provision Service.
Which three device attestation mechanisms can you use? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. X.509 certificates
B. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) 2.0
C. Trusted Platform Module (TPM) 1.2
D. Symmetric key
E. Device Identity Composition Engine (DICE)
Correct Answer: ABD
The Device Provisioning Service supports the following forms of attestation:
X.509 certificates based on the standard X.509 certificate authentication flow.
Trusted Platform Module (TPM) based on a nonce challenge, using the TPM 2.0 standard for keys to present a signed
Shared Access Signature (SAS) token. This does not require a physical TPM on the device, but the service expects to
attest using the endorsement key per the TPM spec.
Symmetric Key based on shared access signature (SAS) Security tokens, which include a hashed signature and an
embedded expiration.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-dps/concepts-service#attestation-mechanism

 

QUESTION 3
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub.
You receive a root certification authority (CA) certificate from the security department at your company.
You need to configure the IoT hub to use the root CA certificate.
Which four actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:microsoft az-220 questions q3

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-security-x509-get-started

 

QUESTION 4
You need to store the real-time alerts generated by Stream Analytics to meet the technical requirements. Which type of
Stream Analytics output should you configure?
A. Azure Blob storage
B. Microsoft Power BI
C. Azure Cosmos DB
D. Azure SQL Database
Correct Answer: A
When you create a Time Series Insights Preview pay-as-you-go (PAYG) SKU environment, you create two Azure
resources:
An Azure Storage general-purpose V1 blob account for cold data storage.
An Azure Time Series Insights Preview environment that can be configured for warm data storage.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/time-series-insights/time-series-insights-update-storage-ingress

 

QUESTION 5
DRAG DROP
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and 1,000
connected IoT devices. The IoT devices are allocated to tour enrollment groups. Each enrollment group is configured to
use
certificate attestation.
You need to decommission all the devices in a single enrollment group and the enrollment group itself.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:microsoft az-220 questions q5

To deprovision all of the devices that have been provisioned through an enrollment group:
Disable the enrollment group to disallow its signing certificate.
Use the list of provisioned devices for that enrollment group to disable or delete each device from the identity registry of
its respective IoT hub.
After disabling or deleting all devices from their respective IoT hubs, you can optionally delete the enrollment group. Be
aware, though, that, if you delete the enrollment group and there is an enabled enrollment group for a signing certificate
higher up in the certificate chain of one or more of the devices, those devices can re-enroll.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-dps/how-to-unprovision-devices

 

QUESTION 6
You have a Standard tier Azure IoT hub and a fleet of IoT devices.
The devices connect to the IoT hub by using either Message Queuing Telemetry Transport (MQTT) or Advanced
Message Queuing Protocol (AMQP).
You need to send data to the IoT devices and each device must respond. Each device will require three minutes to
process the data and respond.
Solution: You update the twin desired property and check the corresponding reported property.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A
IoT Hub provides three options for device apps to expose functionality to a back-end app:
Twin\\’s desired properties for long-running commands intended to put the device into a certain desired state. For
example, set the telemetry send interval to 30 minutes.
Direct methods for communications that require immediate confirmation of the result. Direct methods are often used for
interactive control of devices such as turning on a fan.
Cloud-to-device messages for one-way notifications to the device app.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-devguide-c2d-guidance

 

QUESTION 7
HOTSPOT
You have the following device twin for the IoT device.microsoft az-220 questions q7

For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No. NOTE: Each correct
selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft az-220 questions q7-1

Box1: Yes
Box 2: Yes
Fanspeed 73 is a reported property.
Box 3: No
The deviceID property is read only.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-devguide-device-twins

 

QUESTION 8
You have an Azure IoT solution that includes an Azure IoT hub, a Device Provisioning Service instance, and 1,000
connected IoT devices.
All the IoT devices are provisioned automatically by using one enrollment group.
You need to temporarily disable the IoT devices from the connecting to the IoT hub.
Solution: From the IoT hub, you change the credentials for the shared access policy of the IoT devices.
Does the solution meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-latn-ba/azure/iot-dps/how-to-unprovision-devices

 

QUESTION 9
You have an existing Azure IoT hub.
You use IoT Hub jobs to schedule long running tasks on connected devices.
Which two operations do the IoT Hub jobs support directly? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Trigger Azure functions.
B. Invoke direct methods.
C. Update desired properties.
D. Send cloud-to-device messages.
E. Disable IoT device registry entries.
Correct Answer: BC
Consider using jobs when you need to schedule and track progress any of the following activities on a set of devices:
Invoke direct methods Update desired properties Update tags
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-devguide-jobs

 

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You need to use message enrichment to add additional device information to messages sent from the IoT gateway
devices when the reported temperature exceeds a critical threshold.
How should you configure the enrich message values? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

microsoft az-220 questions q10

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-cyrl-ba/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-message-enrichments-overview

 

QUESTION 11
What should you do to identify the cause of the connectivity issues?
A. Send cloud-to-device messages to the IoT devices.
B. Use the heartbeat pattern to send messages from the IoT devices to iothub1.
C. Monitor the connection status of the device twin by using an Azure function.
D. Enable the collection of the Connections diagnostics logs and set up alerts for the connected devices count metric.
Correct Answer: D
Scenario: You discover connectivity issues between the IoT gateway devices and iothub1, which cause IoT devices to
lose connectivity and messages.
To log device connection events and errors, turn on diagnostics for IoT Hub. We recommend turning on these logs as
early as possible, because if diagnostic logs aren\\’t enabled, when device disconnects occur, you won\\’t have any
information to troubleshoot the problem with.
Step 1:
Sign in to the Azure portal.
Browse to your IoT hub.
Select Diagnostics settings.
Select Turn on diagnostics.
Enable Connections logs to be collected.
For easier analysis, turn on Send to Log Analytics (see pricing).
Step 2:
Set up alerts for device disconnect at scale
To get alerts when devices disconnect, configure alerts on the Connected devices (preview) metric.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/bs-cyrl-ba/azure/iot-hub/iot-hub-troubleshoot-connectivity

 

QUESTION 12
You use Azure Security Center in an Azure IoT solution.
You need to exclude some security events. The solution must minimize development effort.
What should you do?
A. Create an Azure function to filter security messages.
B. Add a configuration to the code of the physical IoT device.
C. Add configuration details to the device twin object.
D. Create an azureiotsecurity module twin and add configuration details to the module twin object.
Correct Answer: D
Properties related to every Azure Security Center for IoT security agent are located in the agent configuration object,
within the desired properties section, of the azureiotsecurity module.
To modify the configuration, create and modify this object inside the azureiotsecurity module twin identity.
Note: Azure Security Center for IoT\\’s security agent twin configuration object is a JSON format object. The
configuration object is a set of controllable properties that you can define to control the behavior of the agent.
These configurations help you customize the agent for each scenario required. For example, automatically excluding
some events, or keeping power consumption to a minimal level are possible by configuring these properties.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/asc-for-iot/how-to-agent-configuration

 

QUESTION 13
You have an Azure Stream Analytics job that receives input from an Azure IoT hub and sends the outputs to Azure Blob
storage. The job has compatibility level 1.1 and six streaming units. You have the following query for the job.microsoft az-220 questions q13

You plan to increase the streaming unit count to 12.
You need to optimize the job to take advantage of the additional streaming units and increase the throughput.
Solution: You change the compatibility level of the job to 1.2.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Max number of Streaming Units with one step and with no partitions is 6.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/stream-analytics/stream-analytics-parallelization

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QUESTION 1
A support engineer is troubleshooting a voice network. When conducting a search for call setup details related to calling
search space issues, which trace files should be investigated?
A. CallManager traces
B. CTI Manager traces
C. Cisco IP Manager Assistant
D. Call logs
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit.

Calls incoming from the provider are not working through newly set up Cisco Unified Border Element. Provider
engineers get the 404 Not Found SIP message. Incoming calls are coming from the provider with called number
“222333444” and Cisco Unified Communications Manager is expecting the called number to be delivered as
“444333222”. The administrator already verified that the IP address of the Cisco Unified CM is set up correctly and there are no dial peers configured other than those shown in the exhibit. Which action must the administrator take to fix the
issue?
A. Change the destination-pattern on the outgoing dial peer to match “444333222”.
B. Set up translation-profile on the incoming dial peer to match incoming traffic.
C. Create specific matching for “222333444” on the incoming dial peer.
D. Fix the voice translation-rule to match specifically number “222333444” and change it to “444333222”.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which IOS command creates a SIP-enabled dial peer?
A. voice dial-peer 20 sip
B. dial-peer voice 20 voip
C. dial-peer voice 20 pots
D. dial peer voice 20 sip
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.ciscopress.com/articles/article.asp?p=664148andseqNum=6

 

QUESTION 4
An administrator discovers that employees are making unauthorized long-distance and international calls from loggedoff Extension Mobility phones when the authorized users are away from their desks Which two configurations should the
administrator configure in the Cisco UCM to avoid this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Remove the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions from the calling search space of the physical phone.
B. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the physical phone\\’s
directory number.
C. Remove the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions from the calling search space of the device profile.
D. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the physical phone.
E. Add the long-distance and international pattern\\’s partitions to the calling search space of the device profile
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 5
A user in location X dials an extension at location Y. The call travels through a QoS-enabled WAN network, but the user
experiences choppy or clipped audio. What is the cause of this issue?
A. missing Call Admission Control
B. codec mismatch
C. ptime mismatch
D. phone class of service issue
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit.

Users report that when they dial the emergency number 9911 from any internal phone, it takes a long time to connect
with the emergency operator. Which action resolves this issue?
A. Adjust the service parameter T302 timet to the desired value.
B. Adjust the service parameter T204 timer to the desired value.
C. Check the Urgent Priority check box under 9.911 pattern.
D. Point the emergency pattern directly to the PSTN gateway.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7
What is first preference condition matched in a SIP-enabled incoming dial peer?
A. incoming uri
B. target carrier-id
C. answer-address
D. incoming called-number
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/voice/ip-telephony-voice-over-ip-voip/211306-InDepthExplanation-of-Cisco-IOS-and-IO.html#anc8

 

QUESTION 8
An engineer must route all SIP calls in the form of @example.com to the SIP trunk gateway corporate local. Which two
SIP route patterns can be used to accomplish this task? (Choose two.)
A. [email protected]
B. *@example.com
C. gateway.corporate.local
D. example.com
E. *.*
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 9
Refer to the exhibit.

An administrator is troubleshooting a situation where a call placed from a phone registered to Cisco Unified
Communications Manager does not complete. The administrator wants to use the Dialed Number Analyzer on Cisco
Unified CM to check which translation pattern the call is matching. However, when logging in to Cisco Unified
Serviceability there is no option for Dialed Number Analyzer under the tool menu. Which two steps must be performed
to resolve this issue? (Choose two.)
A. Restart the subscriber
B. Activate the Cisco Extended Functions service.
C. Activate the Cisco CallManager service.
D. Activate the Cisco Dialed Number Analyzer service.
E. Activate the Cisco Dialed Number Analyzer Server service.
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 10
A user reports when they press the services key they do not receive a user ID and password prompt to assign the
phone extension. Which action resolves the issue?
A. Create the default device profiles for all phone models that are used.
B. Subscribe the phone to the Cisco Extension Mobility service.
C. Create the end user and associate it to the device profile.
D. Assign the extension as a mobile extension.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
Which configuration must an administrator perform to display Translation Pattern operations in Cisco Unified
Communications Manager SDL traces?
A. Enable the Detailed Call Analysis option under Enterprise Parameters for Unified CM.
B. Set up the Digit Analysis Complexity in Service Parameters for Cisco Unified CM to
TranslationAndAlternatePatternAnalysis.
C. Check the Translation Patterns Analysis check box in Micro Traces on the Cisco Unified CM Serviceability page.
D. By default, the Translation Patterns operations are printed in SDL traces, so no additional configuration is necessary.
Correct Answer: D
Reference:https://community.cisco.com/t5/collaboration-voice-and-video/taking-sip-call-trace-on-ciscounified-cm-usingrtmt/ta-p/3161200

 

QUESTION 12
A customer is using a SIP trunk to route calls to ITSP to decrease the possibility of downtime, the customer invested in
a failover device How does the customer ensure reachability to ITSP, so that if one device on ITSP fails, the calls will be
routed to another device?
A. Enable transmit security status on the SIP security profile
B. Enable ANAT on the SIP profile.
C. Monitor the link using network management toots, and if it fails, manually change the routing to another working
device.
D. Enable SIP Option Ping on the SIP profile.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 13
Configure Call Queuing in Cisco Unified Communications Manager. Where do you set the maximum number of callers
in the queue?
A. in the telephony service configuration
B. in the queuing configuration
C. in Cisco Unified CM Enterprise Parameters
D. in Cisco Unified CM Service Parameters
Correct Answer: B
Reference:https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/unified-communications/unified-communicationsmanagercallmanager/200453-Configure-CUCM-Native-Call-Queuing-Featu.html

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QUESTION 1
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You discover that some external users accessed content on a Microsoft SharePoint site. You modify the SharePoint
sharing policy to prevent sharing outside your organization.
You need to be notified if the SharePoint sharing policy is modified in the future.
Solution: From the Security and Compliance admin center, you create a threat management policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 2
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a new Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to prevent users from sending email messages that contain Personally Identifiable Information (PII).
Solution: From the Exchange admin center, you create a data loss prevention (DLP) policy.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
You create a Microsoft 36S subscription.
You need to create a deployment plan for Microsoft Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP).
Which five actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to
the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 4
Your network contains an Active Directory domain named contoso.com. The domain contains 100 Windows 8.1
devices.
You plan to deploy a custom Windows 10 Enterprise image to the Windows 8.1 devices.
You need to recommend a Windows 10 deployment method.
What should you recommend?
A. a provisioning package
B. an in-place upgrade
C. wipe and load refresh
D. Windows Autopilot
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/microsoft-365/enterprise/windows10-infrastructure

 

QUESTION 5
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
You need to prevent users from accessing your Microsoft SharePoint Online sites unless the users are connected to
your on-premises network.
Solution: From the Microsoft 365 admin center, you configure the Organization profile settings.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Conditional Access in SharePoint Online can be configured to use an IP Address white list to allow access.
References:
https://techcommunity.microsoft.com/t5/Microsoft-SharePoint-Blog/Conditional-Access-in-SharePoint-Online-andOneDrive-for/ba-p/46678A


QUESTION 6
You have a Microsoft 365 subscription.
All users are assigned a Microsoft 365 E3 license.
You enable auditing for your organization.
What is the maximum amount of time data will be retained in the Microsoft 365 audit log?
A. 2 years
B. 1 year
C. 30 days
D. 90 days
Correct Answer: D
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/search-the-audit-log-in-security-andcompliance

 

QUESTION 7
Your company has a Microsoft 365 subscription that uses an Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named
contoso.com. The company stores 2 TBs of data in SharePoint Online document libraries. The tenant has the labels
shown in the following table.

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 8
Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains
a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution,
while
others might not have a correct solution.
After you answer a question in this section, you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not
appear in the review screen.
You are deploying Microsoft Intune.
You successfully enroll Windows 10 devices in Intune.
When you try to enroll an iOS device in Intune, you get an error.
You need to ensure that you can enroll the iOS device in Intune.
Solution: You add your user account as a device enrollment manager.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
You have several devices enrolled in Microsoft Intone.
You have a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant that includes the users shown in the following table.

You add User3 as a device enrollment manager in Intune.
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 10
You need to protect the U.S. PII data to meet the technical requirements. What should you create?
A. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that contains a domain exception
B. a Security and Compliance retention policy that detects content containing sensitive data
C. a Security and Compliance alert policy that contains an activity
D. a data loss prevention (DLP) policy that contains a user override
Correct Answer: C
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/office365/securitycompliance/create-activity-alerts

 

QUESTION 11
You have a data loss prevention (DIP) policy.
You need to increase the likelihood that the DLP policy will apply to data that contains medical terms from the
International Classification of Diseases (ICD-9-CM). The solution must minimize the number of false positives.
Which two settings should you modify? To answer, select the appropriate settings in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

 

QUESTION 12
Your company uses Windows Defender Advanced Threat Protection (ATP). Windows Defender ATP includes the
machine groups shown in the following table.

You onboard a computer named computer1 to Windows Defender ATP as shown in the following exhibit.

Use the drop-down menus to select the answer choice that completes each statement based on the information
presented in the graphic. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Correct Answer:

QUESTION 13
Your company has a Microsoft Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) tenant named contoso.com and a Microsoft 365
subscription. The company recently hired four new users who have the devices shown in the following table.

You configure the Microsoft 365 subscription to ensure that the new devices enroll in Microsoft Intune automatically.
Which users have a device that can enroll in Microsoft Intune automatically?
A. User1 and User2 only
B. User 1, User2, and User only
C. User1, User2.User3, and User4
D. User2only
Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

cisco 350-201 q1

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop has automatically submitted
a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine for further analysis. What should be concluded from this report?
A. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the
scores do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.
B. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise do not justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the
scores are high and do not indicate the likelihood of malicious ransomware.
C. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are high and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.
D. The prioritized behavioral indicators of compromise justify the execution of the “ransomware” because the scores are
low and indicate the likelihood that malicious ransomware has been detected.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
Refer to the exhibit. Which command was executed in PowerShell to generate this log?cisco 350-201 q2

A. Get-EventLog -LogName*
B. Get-EventLog -List
C. Get-WinEvent -ListLog* -ComputerName localhost
D. Get-WinEvent -ListLog*
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://lists.xymon.com/archive/2019-March/046125.html

QUESTION 3
DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the threat from the left onto the scenario that introduces the threat on the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

cisco 350-201 q3

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q3-1

QUESTION 4
A SOC analyst is notified by the network monitoring tool that there are unusual types of internal traffic on IP subnet
103.861.2117.0/24. The analyst discovers unexplained encrypted data files on a computer system that belongs on that
specific subnet.
What is the cause of the issue?
A. DDoS attack
B. phishing attack
C. virus outbreak
D. malware outbreak
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit. Which asset has the highest risk value?cisco 350-201 q5

A. servers
B. website
C. payment process
D. secretary workstation
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 6
What is the principle of Infrastructure as Code?
A. System maintenance is delegated to software systems
B. Comprehensive initial designs support robust systems
C. Scripts and manual configurations work together to ensure repeatable routines
D. System downtime is grouped and scheduled across the infrastructure
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
An analyst is alerted for a malicious file hash. After analysis, the analyst determined that an internal workstation is
communicating over port 80 with an external server and that the file hash is associated with Duqu malware. Which
tactics, techniques, and procedures align with this analysis?
A. Command and Control, Application Layer Protocol, Duqu
B. Discovery, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
C. Lateral Movement, Remote Services: SMB/Windows Admin Shares, Duqu
D. Discovery, System Network Configuration Discovery, Duqu
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 8
Refer to the exhibit. For IP 192.168.1.209, what are the risk level, activity, and next step?cisco 350-201 q8

A. high-risk level, anomalous periodic communication, quarantine with antivirus
B. critical risk level, malicious server IP, run in a sandboxed environment
C. critical risk level, data exfiltration, isolate the device
D. high-risk level, malicious host, investigate further
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
DRAG-DROPcisco 350-201 q9

Refer to the exhibit. The Cisco Secure Network Analytics (Stealthwatch) console alerted with “New Malware Server
Discovered” and the IOC indicates communication from an end-user desktop to a Zeus CandC Server. Drag and drop
the actions that the analyst should take from the left into the order on the right to investigate and remediate this IOC.
Select and Place:

cisco 350-201 q9-1

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q9-2

QUESTION 10cisco 350-201 q10

Refer to the exhibit. Cisco Advanced Malware Protection installed on an end-user desktop automatically submitted a low prevalence file to the Threat Grid analysis engine. What should be concluded from this report?
A. Threat scores are high, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified
B. Threat scores are low, malicious ransomware has been detected, and files have been modified
C. Threat scores are high, malicious activity is detected, but files have not been modified
D. Threat scores are low and no malicious file activity is detected
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
DRAG-DROP
An organization lost connectivity to critical servers, and users cannot access business applications and internal
websites. An engineer checks the network devices to investigate the outage and determines that all devices are
functioning. Drag and drop the steps from the left into the sequence on the right to continue investigating this issue. Not
all options are used.
Select and Place:cisco 350-201 q11

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-201 q11-1

QUESTION 12
An employee abused PowerShell commands and script interpreters, which lead to an indicator of compromise (IOC)
trigger. The IOC event shows that a known malicious file has been executed, and there is an increased likelihood of a
breach.
Which indicator generated this IOC event?
A. ExecutedMalware.ioc
B. Crossrider.ioc
C. ConnectToSuspiciousDomain.ioc
D. W32 AccesschkUtility.ioc
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
A threat actor used a phishing email to deliver a file with an embedded macro. The file was opened, and a remote code
execution attack occurred in a company\\’s infrastructure. Which steps should an engineer take at the recovery stage?
A. Determine the systems involved and deploy available patches
B. Analyze event logs and restrict network access
C. Review access lists and require users to increase password complexity
D. Identify the attack vector and update the IDS signature list
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
Which two operations are valid for RESTCONF? (Choose two.)
A. HEAD
B. REMOVE
C. PULL
D. PATCH
E. ADD
F. PUSH
Correct Answer: AD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/iosxml/ios/prog/configuration/166/b_166_programmability_cg/b_166_programmability_cg_chapter_01011.html

 

QUESTION 2
What is the function of a control-plane node in a Cisco SD-Access solution?
A. to run a mapping system that manages endpoint to network device relationships
B. to implement policies and communicate with networks outside the fabric
C. to connect external Layer 3 networks to the SD-Access fabric.
D. to connect APs and wireless endpoints to the SD-Access fabric
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 3
An engineer is configuring local web authentication on a WLAN. The engineer chooses the Authentication radio button
under the Layer 3 Security options for Web Policy. Which device presents the web authentication for the WLAN?
A. ISE server
B. local WLC
C. RADIUS server
D. anchor WLC
Correct Answer: B


QUESTION 4
How are the Cisco Express Forwarding table and the FIB related to each other?
A. Cisco Express Forwarding uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions correct
B. The FIB is used to populate the Cisco Express Forwarding table
C. There can be only one FIB but multiple Cisco Express Forwarding tables on IOS devices
D. The Cisco Express Forwarding table allows route lookups to be forwarded to the route processor for processing
before they are sent to the FIB
Correct Answer: A
The Forwarding Information Base (FIB) table?CEF uses a FIB to make IP destination prefix-based switching decisions.
The FIB is conceptually similar to a routing table or information base. It maintains a mirror image of the forwarding
information contained in the IP routing table. When routing or topology changes occur in the network, the IP routing
table is updated, and these changes are reflected in the FIB. The FIB maintains next-hop address information based on
the information in the IP routing table. Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/routers/12000-seriesrouters/47321-ciscoef.html

 

QUESTION 5
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 350-501 q5

Which statement about the OPSF debug output is true?
A. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent to received on interface Fa0/1.
B. The output displays all OSPF messages which router R1 has sent or received on all interfaces.
C. The output displays OSPF hello messages which router R1 has sent received on interface Fa0/1.
D. The output displays OSPF hello and LSACK messages which router R1 has sent or received.
Correct Answer: C
This combination of commands is known as “Conditional debug” and will filter the debug output based on your
conditions. Each condition added, will behave like an `And\\’ operator in Boolean logic. Some examples of the “debug IP OSPF hello” are shown below:

cisco 350-501 q5-1

QUESTION 6
Which standard access control entry permits from odd-numbered hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet?
A. Permit 10.0.0.0.0.0.0.1
B. Permit 10.0.0.1.0.0.0.0
C. Permit 10.0.0.1.0.0.0.254
D. Permit 10.0.0.0.255.255.255.254
Correct Answer: C
Remember, for the wildcard mask, 1s are I DON\\’T CARE, and 0s are I CARE. So now let\\’s analyze a simple ACL:
access-list 1 permit 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255
Two first octets are all 0\\’s meaning that we care about the network 172.23.x.x. The third octet of the wildcard mask, 15
(0000 1111 in binary), means that we care about the first 4 bits but don\\’t care about the last 4 bits so we allow the third octet in
the form of 0001xxxx (minimum:00010000 = 16; maximum: 0001111 = 31).cisco 350-501 q6

The fourth octet is 255 (all 1 bits) which means I don\\’t care. Therefore network 172.23.16.0 0.0.15.255 ranges from
172.23.16.0 to 172.23.31.255. Now let\\’s consider the wildcard mask of 0.0.0.254 (four-octet: 254 = 1111 1110) which
means we
only care the last bit. Therefore if the last bit of the IP address is a “1” (0000 0001) then only odd numbers are allowed.
If the last bit of the IP address is a “0” (0000 0000) then only even numbers are allowed.
Note: In binary, odd numbers always end with a “1” while even numbers always end with a “0”.
Therefore in this question, only the statement “permit 10.0.0.1 0.0.0.254” will allow all odd-numbered
hosts in the 10.0.0.0/24 subnet.

 

QUESTION 7
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 350-501 q7

During deployment, a network engineer notices that voice traffic is not being tagged correctly as it traverses the
network. Which COS to DSCP map must be modified to ensure that voice traffic is treated properly?
A. COS of 5 to DSCP 46
B. COS of 7 to DSCP 48
C. COS of 6 to DSCP 46
D. COS of 3 to DSCP of 26
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
A company plans to implement intent-based networking in its campus infrastructure.
Which design facilitates migration from a traditional campus design to a programmable fabric design?
A. Layer 2 access
B. three-tier
C. two-tier
D. routed access
Correct Answer: C
Intent-based networking (IBN) transforms a hardware-centric, manual network into a controller-led network that
captures business intent and translates it into policies that can be automated and applied consistently across the
network. The goal is for the network to continuously monitor and adjust network performance to help assure desired
business outcomes. IBN builds on software-defined networking (SDN). SDN usually uses spine-leaf architecture, which
is typically deployed as two layers: spines (such as an aggregation layer), and leaves (such as an access layer).cisco 350-501 q8

QUESTION 9
An engineer is describing QoS to a client. Which two facts apply to traffic policing? (Choose two.)
A. Policing adapts to network congestion by queuing excess traffic
B. Policing should be performed as close to the destination as possible
C. Policing drops traffic that exceeds the defined rate
D. Policing typically delays the traffic, rather than drops it
E. Policing should be performed as close to the source as possible
Correct Answer: CE
Traffic policing propagates bursts. When the traffic rate reaches the configured maximum rate (or committed information
rate), excess traffic is dropped (or remarked). The result is an output rate that appears as a saw-tooth with crests and
troughs.
Unlike traffic shaping, traffic policing does not cause delay. Classification (which includes traffic policing, traffic shaping, and queuing techniques) should take place at the network edge. It is recommended that classification occur as close to the source of the traffic as possible. Also according to this Cisco link, “policing traffic as close to the source as
possible”.

 

QUESTION 10
To increase total throughput and redundancy on the links between the wireless controller and switch, the customer
enabled LAG on the wireless controller. Which EtherChannel mode must be configured on the switch to allow the WLC
to connect?
A. Auto
B. Active
C. On
D. Passive
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://community.cisco.com/t5/wireless-mobility-documents/lag-link-aggregation/ta-p/3128669

 

QUESTION 11
Drag and drop the descriptions of the VSS technology from the left to the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:

cisco 350-501 q11

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-501 q11-1

QUESTION 12
On which protocol or technology is the fabric data plane based in Cisco SD-Access fabric?
A. LISP
B. IS-IS
C. Cisco TrustSec
D. VXLAN
Correct Answer: D
The tunneling technology used for the fabric data plane is based on Virtual Extensible LAN (VXLAN). VXLAN
encapsulation is UDP-based, meaning that it can be forwarded by any IP-based network (legacy or third party) and
creates the overlay network for the SD-Access fabric. Although LISP is the control plane for the SD-Access fabric, it
does not use LISP data encapsulation for the data plane; instead, it uses VXLAN encapsulation because it is capable of
encapsulating the original Ethernet header to perform MAC-in-IP encapsulation, while LISP does not. Using VXLAN
allows the SD-Access fabric to support Layer 2 and Layer 3 virtual topologies (overlays) and the ability to operate over
any IP-based network with built-in network segmentation (VRF instance/VN) and built-in group-based policy. Reference:
CCNP and CCIE Enterprise Core ENCOR 350-401 Official Cert Guide

 

QUESTION 13
Which NGFW mode block flows crossing the firewall?
A. Passive
B. Tap
C. Inline tap
D. Inline
Correct Answer: D
Firepower Threat Defense (FTD) provides six interface modes which are: Routed, Switched, Inline Pair, Inline Pair with
Tap, Passive, Passive (ERSPAN). When Inline Pair Mode is in use, packets can be blocked since they are processed
inline When you use Inline Pair mode, the packet goes mainly through the FTD Snort engine When Tap Mode is
enabled, a copy of the packet is inspected and dropped internally while the actual traffic goes through FTD unmodified
https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/security/firepower-ngfw/200924-configuringfirepower-threat-defenseint.html

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The latest update of Cisco 350-501 exam questions and answers and official exam information tips

QUESTION 1
DRAG-DROP
Drag and drop the functionalities from the left onto the correct target fields on the right.
Select and Place:

cisco 350-501 q1

Correct Answer:

cisco 350-501 q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
Which configuration modifies Local Packet Transport Services hardware policies?cisco 350-501 q2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
D. Option D
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/crs/software/crs_r4-1/addr_serv/command/reference/b_ipaddr_cr41crs/b_ipaddr_cr41crs_chapter_0111.html#wp1754734006

 

QUESTION 3

cisco 350-501 q3

Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is preparing to implement a data plane security configuration. Which statement about this
configuration is true?
A. Router 2 is the router receiving the DDoS attack.
B. Router 1 must be configured with uRPF for the RTBH implementation to be effective.
C. Router 1 is the trigger router in an RTBH implementation.
D. Router 2 must configure a route to null 0 for network 192.168.1.0/24 for the RTBH implementation to be complete.
Correct Answer: D


QUESTION 4
Which three OSPF parameters must match before two devices can establish an OSPF adjacency? (Choose three.)
A. IP address
B. subnet mask
C. interface cost
D. process ID
E. area number
F. hello timer setting
Correct Answer: BEF

 

QUESTION 5
Which statement about segment routing prefix segments is true?
A. It is the longest path to a node.
B. It is linked to an adjacency SID that is globally unique within the router.
C. It is linked to a prefix SID that is globally unique within the segment routing domain.
D. It requires using EIGRP to operate.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/routers/asr9000/software/segment-routing/configuration/guide/b-segrouting-cg-asr9k/b-seg-routing-cg-asr9k_chapter_010.pdf

 

QUESTION 6

cisco 350-501 q6

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement supports QPPB implementation?
A. QPPB policies affect only egress traffic.
B. QoS policies rely exclusively on BGP attributes to manipulate traffic.
C. QoS policies are identified in the MPLS forwarding table.
D. QoS policies use BGP to gain full coverage on the network.
Correct Answer: B
The QoS Policy Propagation via BGP feature allows you to classify packets by IP precedence based on the Border
Gateway Protocol (BGP) Attributes like community lists, BGP autonomous system paths, and access lists.

 

QUESTION 7

cisco 350-501 q7

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration prevents the OSPF neighbor from establishing?
A. default-metric
B. duplex
C. network statement
D. MTU
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 8
What are two factors to consider when implementing NSR High Availability on an MPLS PE router? (Choose two.)
A. It consumes more memory and CPU resources than NSF
B. It operates normally without NSR support on the PE peers.
C. It requires all PE-CE sessions to support NSR
D. It requires routing protocol extensions
E. It cannot sync state information across redundant RPs
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 9

cisco 350-501 q9

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer is implementing a BGP routing policy. Which effect of this configuration is true?
A. All traffic that matches acl10 is allowed without any change to its local preference.
B. All traffic that matches acl10 is dropped without any change to its local preference.
C. If traffic matches acl10, it is allowed and its local preference is set to 300.
D. All traffic is assigned a local preference of 300 regardless of its destination.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 10
A network engineer is configuring a BGP route policy for the SUBNET prefix set. Matching traffic must be dropped, and
other traffic must have its MED value set to 400 and community 4:400 added to the route. Which configuration must an
engineer apply?
A. router-policy CISCO if destination in SUBNET then drop
else
set med 400
set community (4:400) additive
endif
end-policy
end
B. router-policy CISCO if destination in SUBNET then
drop
endif
set med 400
if community matches any SUBNET then
set local-preference 400
set med 500
set community (4:400) additive
endif
end-policy
end
C. router-policy SUBNET if destination in SUBNET then
drop
endif
set med 400
set local-preference 400
if community matches any SUBNET then
set community (4:400)
endif
end-policy
end
D. router-policy SUBNET if destination in BGP then drop
else
set med 400
set community (4:400)
endif
end-policy
end
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11

cisco 350-501 q11

Refer to the exhibit. A network operator working for a service provider with an employee id: 1234:56:789 applied this
configuration to a router.
Which additional step should the engineer use to enable LDP?
A. Enable MPLS LDP on the interface.
B. Disable Cisco Express Forwarding globally.
C. Delete the static router ID.
D. Configure both keywords to enable LDP globally.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 12
Refer to the exhibit.

cisco 350-501 q12

A network operator must configure CSR1 interlaces GigabitEihernet2 and GigabitEthemet to rewrite VLAN tags 12 and
21 for traffic between R1 and R2 respectively. Which configurator accomplishes this task?

cisco 350-501 q12-1 cisco 350-501 q12-2

A. Option A
B. Option B
C. Option C
Correct Answer: C
IF bridge domain on both interfaces are 10

 

QUESTION 13

Refer to the exhibit. Router 1 was experiencing a DDoS attack that was traced to interface gigabitethernet0/1. Which
statement about this configuration is true?
A. Router 1 accepts all traffic that ingresses and egresses interface gigabitethernet0/1.
B. Router 1 drops all traffic that ingresses interface gigabitethernet0/1 that has a FIB entry that exits a different
interface.
C. Router 1 accepts source addresses that have a match in the FIB that indicates it is reachable through a real
interface.
D. Router 1 accepts source addresses on interface gigabitethernet0/1 that are private addresses.
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/sw/4_1/nxos/security/configuration/guide/sec_nx-os-cfg/sec_urpf.html

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