EMC DEA-64T1 exam exercise questions, DEA-64T1 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Associate – Converged Systems and Hybrid Cloud Version 2.0” Exam DEA-64T1. Here you can get the latest free EMC DEA-64T1 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills! DEA-64T1 exam: Successfully obtaining this certification validates the candidate’s understanding of Digital and IT Transformation, and how Dell EMC Converged Systems can be used to accelerate the transformation process. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.lead4pass.com/dea-64t1.html exam.

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Latest EMC DEA-64T1 pdf

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Free EMC DEA-64T1 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

Which product provides storage for a VxBlock? 

A. Dell EMC VMAX 

B. Cisco UCS 

C. Cisco Nexus 

D. VMware vSphere 

Correct Answer: A 

Reference: https://shop.dellemc.com/en-us/VxBlock-and-Vblock-Products/Dell-EMC-VxBlock-System-1000/p/Dell-EMC-VxBlock-System-1000 

QUESTION 2

What is one factor that differentiates a public cloud from a private cloud? 

A. Applications and data are managed by the customer in a private cloud 

B. Private cloud resources are owned and managed by a single entity 

C. Firewall protection is not required in a private cloud 

D. Private cloud resources must reside on the company\\’s premises 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 3

Which Dell EMC Hyper-Converged Infrastructure solution provides a foundation for IaaS and supports multiple

hypervisors? 

A. VxRail 

B. VxRack FLEX 

C. VxRack SDDC 

D. VxBlock 

Correct Answer: B 

Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/vxrack-1000-overview.pdf 

QUESTION 4

A software development company wants to refresh their existing infrastructure. One of their goals is to enable faster

development times for their products. The development teams indicate that their biggest delays are caused by having to

wait for the infrastructure teams to provision new VMs and networks for test environments. 

Which Dell EMC platform would meet all of the company\\’s requirements without the addition of optional components? 

A. VxBlock 500 

B. VxRack FLEX 

C. VxRack SDDC 

D. VxRail 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 5

What are key focal areas of iTaaS? 

A. Operational efficiency, rapid response, and infrastructure 

B. Business outcomes, operational efficiency, and competitiveness 

C. Business requirements, competitiveness, and cost-center implementation 

D. Rapid response, infrastructure, and business requirements 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 6

Which security concept focuses on minimizing the number of security breach points on the platform? 

A. Vulnerability Management 

B. Security Event Management 

C. Threat Management 

D. Identity Access Management 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 7

What are components of identity access management in Pivotal Cloud Foundry? 

A. Application security groups and firewalls 

B. Tokens and SSO 

C. Releases and stemcells 

D. Event logging and monitoring 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 8

What would cause an IT organization to pursue digital disruption? 

A. Currently having a flexible organization structure 

B. Experiencing stable operational costs 

C. Experiencing increasing resource maintenance costs 

D. Maintaining current vendor relationships being a priority 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 9

VxBlock compute servers use which storage access topology to boot the operating system? 

A. NAS 

B. iSCSI SAN 

C. LAN 

D. FC SAN 

Correct Answer: D 

Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/technicaldocumentation/vxblock-1000-architecture-overview.pdf 

QUESTION 10

What are benefits of network virtualization? 

A. Improved storage efficiency and simplified data protection. 

B. Support for collaboration and automation of tasks 

C. Enhanced network security and improved network performance 

D. Enabling of over-provisioning and improved cost-efficiency 

Correct Answer: C 

Reference: https://www.sdxcentral.com/sdn/network-virtualization/definitions/nv-in-the-data-center/ 

QUESTION 11

Which Dell EMC product provides storage management and visibility to multi-vendor storage arrays in virtualized and

cloud environments? 

A. VMware SRM 

B. ViPR Controller 

C. ViPR SRM 

D. VMware Storage vMotion 

Correct Answer: C 

Reference: https://www.emc.com/techpubs/vipr/intro_to_vipr_srm-1.htm 

QUESTION 12

What physical resource is divided up by compute resource virtualization to create virtual resources? 

A. SAAS controller 

B. RAM 

C. ROM 

D. PCI bus 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 13

What are components of the Dell EMC VxRail system? 

A. VMware vSphere, VMware SDDC Manager, and Dell EMC VxRail Manager 

B. VMware NSX, VMware VSAN, and VMware SDDC Manager 

C. VMware vSphere, VMware VSAN, and Dell EMC VxRail Manager 

D. VMware vSphere, VMware VSAN, and Dell EMC ScaleIO 

Correct Answer: C 

Reference: https://wuchikin.wordpress.com/2017/03/17/emc-vxrail-overview/ 

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[2020.7] latest collection of Oracle certification exam exercise questions and answers

The most popular Oracle exam certification exercise questions and tips.
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Popular Oracle 1z0-062 List

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Oracle Database 12c Administration 1Z0-062 – Oracle University: https://education.oracle.com/oracle-database-12c-administration/pexam_1Z0-062

[2020.7] Popular Oracle 1z0-062 exam practice questions(1-5)

QUESTION 1

Which three statements are true about the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose three.)
A. An AWR snapshot shows the SQL statements that are producing the highest load on the system, based on criteria
such as elapsed time and CPU time.
B. AWR data is stored in memory and in a database.
C. All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.
D. The manageability monitor (MMON) process gathers statistics and creates an AWR snapshot that is used by the self-tuning components in a database.
E. An AWR snapshot contains system-wide tracing and logging information.

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2

You determine that database performance is sub-optimal due to hard parsing statements. Automatic Shared Memory
Management (ASMM) is disabled for your database instance. Which tool would you use to get advice on how to improve
performance?
A. Memory Advisor for the PGA
B. SQL Access Advisor
C. Memory Advisor for the shared pool
D. SQL Tuning Advisor

Correct Answer: C

References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E25178_01/server.1111/e10897/montune.htm#CHDGFCFJ

QUESTION 3

Which component resides in the System Global Area (SGA) of a database instance only in shared server connections?
A. User Global Area
B. Program Global Area
C. SQL Query Result Cache
D. PL/SQL Function Result Cache

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

To implement Automatic Management (AMM), you set the following parameters:

dumpsdemo 1z0-062 q4

When you try to start the database instance with these parameter settings, you receive the following error message:
SQL > startup
ORA-00824: cannot set SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET due to existing internal settings, see alert log for more
information.
Identify the reason the instance failed to start.
A. The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET parameter is set to zero.
B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to BASIC.
C. Both the SGA_TARGET and MEMORY_TARGET parameters are set.
D. The SGA_MAX_SIZE and SGA_TARGET parameter values are not equal.

Correct Answer: B

Example: SQL> startup force ORA-00824: cannot set SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET due to existing internal
settings ORA-00848: STATISTICS_LEVEL cannot be set to BASIC with SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET

QUESTION 5

Which two statements are true about standard database auditing? (Choose two.)
A. DDL statements can be audited.
B. Statements that refer to a standalone procedures can be audited.
C. Operations by the users logged on as SYSDBA cannot be audited.
D. Only one audit record is ever created for a session per audited statement even though it is executed more than
once.

Correct Answer: AB

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QUESTION 1

Which two statement are true regarding table joins available in the Oracle Database server? (Choose two.)
A. You can use the ON clause to specify multiple conditions while joining tables.
B. You can explicitly provide the join condition with a NATURAL JOIN.
C. You can use the JOIN clause to join only two tables.
D. You can use the USING clause to join tables on more than one column.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2

Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. The data dictionary is created and maintained by the database administrator.
B. The data dictionary views consist of joins of dictionary base tables and user-defined tables.
C. The usernames of all the users including database administrators are stored in the data dictionary.
D. The USER_CONS_COLUMNS view should be queried to find the names of columns to which constraints apply.
E. Both USER_OBJECTS and CAT views provide the same information about all objects that are owned by the user.
F. Views with the same name but different prefixes, such as DBA, ALL and USER, reference the same base tables from
the data dictionary.

Correct Answer: CDF

References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B10501_01/server.920/a96524/c05dicti.htm

QUESTION 3

Which two statements are true about single-row functions? (Choose two.)
A. CEIL: can be used for positive and negative numbers
B. FLOOR: returns the smallest integer greater than or equal to a specified number
C. TRUNC: can be used with NUMBER and DATE values
D. CONCAT: can be used to combine any number of values
E. MOD: returns the quotient of a division operation

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://www.folkstalk.com/2012/01/oracle-single-row-functions-examples.html

QUESTION 4

SCOTT is a user in the database.
Evaluate the commands issued by the DBA:

dumpsdemo 1z0-071 q4

Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above commands?
A. Statement 1 would not execute because the WITH GRANT option is missing.
B. Statement 2 would not execute because system privileges and object privileges cannot be granted together in a
single GRANT command.
C. Statement 3 would not execute because role and system privileges cannot be granted together in a single GRANT
statement.
D. Statement 1 would not execute because the IDENTIFIED BY clause is missing.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

View the Exhibit and examine the structure of CUSTOMERS table.

dumpsdemo 1z0-071 q5

Evaluate the following query:

dumpsdemo 1z0-071 q5-1

Which statement is true regarding the above query?
A. It produces an error because the condition on the CUST_CITY column is not valid.
B. It produces an error because the condition on the CUST_FIRST_NAME column is not valid.
C. It produces an error because conditions on the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column are not valid.
D. It executes successfully.

Correct Answer: D

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[2020.7] Popular Oracle 1z0-144 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1

Which statements are true about the WHEN OTHERS exception handler? (Choose two.)
A. It can be the first exception handler.
B. It can be the only exception handler for the code.
C. It traps all the exceptions that are not already trapped.
D. You can have multiple other clauses to trap all the multiple unhandled exceptions.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2

Which two statements are true about the INSTEAD OF triggers? (Choose two.)
A. DELETE operations cannot be performed using the INSTEAD OF triggers.
B. The INSTEAD OF triggers must be created to add or modify data through any view.
C. The INSTEAD OF triggers can be written only for views, and the BEFORE and AFTER timing options are not valid.
D. The CHECK option for views is not enforced when insertions or updates to the view are performed by using the
INSTEAD OF triggers.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3

Which two statements are true about database triggers? (Choose two.)
A. Each trigger can be of any size.
B. Each trigger can be of a maximum size of 32 KB.
C. A trigger can contain a maximum of 32 lines of code.
D. Triggers fired by DML statements cannot cascade simultaneously.
E. Both DML and DDL statements can cascade any number of triggers.
F. Both data manipulation language (DML) and data definition language (DDL) statements can cascade up to 32
triggers.

Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 4

Which two statements are true about the continue statement? (Choose two.)
A. The PL/SQL block execution terminates immediately.
B. The CONTINUE statement cannot appear outside a loop.
C. The loop completes immediately and control passes to the statement after end loop.
D. The statements after the continue statement in the iteration are executed before terminating the LOOP.
E. The current iteration of the loop completes immediately and control passes to the next iteration of the loop.

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5

View the Exhibit to examine the PL/SQL code.

dumpsdemo 1z0-144 q5

Which statement is true about the execution of the code?
A. The exception raised in the code is handled by the exception handler for the PAST_DUE exception.
B. It does not execute because you cannot declare an exception with a similar name in the subblock.
C. The PAST_DUE exception raised in the subblock causes the program to terminate abruptly because there is no
exception handler in the subblock.
D. The PAST_DUE exception raised by the enclosing block is not propagated to the outer block and it is handled by the
WHEN OTHERS exception handler

Correct Answer: D

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QUESTION 1

John has a form page with an email item and a status item.
What must John do to ensure that the email item is populated before users can enter any value into the status item on
the form page?
A. dynamic action on the email item
B. validation on the email item
C. plug-in for the status item
D. server-side condition on the status item

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

William has created the chart on the left, which displays values.
He wants to show the chart on the right, which displays percentages.

dumpsdemo 1z0-750 q2

Which step should William perform to display percentages?
A. Set the Column Mapping > Value to “Percentage”.
B. Set Label > Display As to “Percentage”.
C. Update the query to return percentage values.
D. Set Tooltip > Show Value to “No.”

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

Francisco has been tasked with creating a Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ) page. The page security requirements
are defined as: Anyone who can access the application, in any capacity, shall also be able to view the new FAQ page.
Which page-level Authorization Scheme and Authentication options should Francisco choose?
A. Authorization Scheme: Reader Rights; Authentication: Page Requires Authentication
B. Authorization Scheme: Null; Authentication: Page is Public
C. Authorization Scheme: {Not Reader Rights}; Authentication: Page Is Public
D. Authorization Scheme: Must Not Be Public User; Authentication: Page Requires Authentication

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

George used to Create Page Wizard to create a calendar on the DEMO_ORDERS table based on the
ORDER_TIMESTAMP column. However, the calendar shows only the month and list views. What does George need to
do to show week and day views?
A. Select the End Date Column
B. Set Show Time to “Yes”
C. Set Maximum Events / Day to greater than 1
D. Select Week and Day under Calendar Views and Navigation

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/html/E39147_04/bldapp_cal.htm

QUESTION 5

Penny has created a special survey page, Page 8, where she wants to hide the standard navigation menu. Which two
ways can Penny hide the navigation menu only for Page 8? (Choose two.)
A. Update the navigation menu and set the condition of Never for Page 8.
B. Change Page Template to Minimal (No Navigation) for Page 8.
C. Go to Page Shared Components. Right-click the navigation menu entry and select Delete.
D. Delete the Navigation Menu region from Page 8.
E. Set Override User Interface Level to Yes.
F. Do not include Page 8 in the list of pages in the navigation menu.

Correct Answer: AB

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[2020.7] Popular Oracle 1z0-1084-20 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1

You are processing millions of files in an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Object Storage bucket. Each time a new file
is created, you want to send an email to the customer and create an order in a database. The solution should perform
and
minimize cost.
Which action should you use to trigger this email? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Schedule a cron job that monitors the OCI Object Storage bucket and emails the customer when a new file is
created.
B. Use OCI Events service and OCI Notification service to send an email each time a file is created.
C. Schedule an Oracle Function that checks the OCI Object Storage bucket every minute and emails the customer
when a file is found.
D. Schedule an Oracle Function that checks the OCI Object Storage bucket every second and emails the customer
when a file is found.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

Which is NOT a valid option to execute a function deployed on Oracle Functions? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Send a signed HTTP requests to the function\’s invoke endpoint
B. Invoke from Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI
C. Invoke from Docker CLI
D. Trigger by an event in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Events service
E. Invoke from Fn Project CLI

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Functions/Concepts/functionshowitworks.htm

QUESTION 3

You are implementing logging in your services that will be running in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Engine for
Kubernetes. Which statement describes the appropriate logging approach? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Each service logs to its own log file.
B. All services log to an external logging system.
C. All services log to standard output only.
D. All services log to a shared log file.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://dzone.com/articles/5-best-security-practices-for-kubernetes-and-oracle-kubernetes-engine

QUESTION 4

Which two handle Oracle Functions authentication automatically? (Choose two.)
A. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure SDK
B. cURL
C. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI
D. Signed HTTP Request
E. Fn Project CLI

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://blogs.oracle.com/developers/oracle-functions-invoking-functions-automatically-with-cloud-events

QUESTION 5

Which two are benefits of distributed systems? (Choose two.)
A. Privacy
B. Security
C. Ease of testing
D. Scalability
E. Resiliency

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://www.cis.upenn.edu/~lee/07cis505/Lec/lec-ch1-DistSys-v4.pdf

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[2020.7] Popular Oracle 1z0-1085-20 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1

According to the shared security model, which two are a customer\’s responsibilities in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)?
(Choose two.)
A. Object Storage data durability
B. Customer data
C. Local NVMe data persistence
D. Physical security of OCI data center facilities
E. Virtual Machine hypervisor

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://cloudcheckr.com/cloud-security/shared-responsibility-model/

QUESTION 2

Which is NOT required to register and log support requests in My Oracle Support (MOS)?
A. Your resource OCID (Oracle Cloud Identifier)
B. Your Tenancy OCID (Oracle Cloud Identifier)
C. Your account password
D. Your Customer Support Identifier (CSI)

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/pdf/ug/OCI_User_Guide.pdf

QUESTION 3

Which Oracle Cloud infrastructure service can you use to assess user security of your Oracle databases?
A. Audit Service
B. Audit Vault and Database Firewall option for Oracle Database Enterprise Edition
C. Oracle Data Guard
D. Oracle Data Safe

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/data-safe/doc/oracle-data-safe-overview.html

QUESTION 4

You were recently assigned to manage a project to deploy Oracle E-Business Suite on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure
(OCI). The application will require a database, several servers, and a shared file system. Which three OCI services are
best suited for this project? (Choose three.)
A. OCI Streaming Service
B. Object Storage Service
C. File Storage Service
D. Virtual Machine (VM) or Bare Metal (BM) compute instances
E. OCI virtual or Bare Metal DB Systems
F. Oracle Container Engine for Kubernetes

Correct Answer: BCE

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/solutions/deploy-ebusiness-suite-oci/index.html#GUID-1F8ACA7B-C147-446FA4A4-AD70E4ECCA66

QUESTION 5

What characteristics are defined by an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Compute shape?
A. Availability Domain and Fault Domain locations
B. Number of vCPU, amount of RAM, bandwidth
C. Number of OCPU, amount of RAM, bandwidth
D. Public or private visibility of the Compute instance

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Compute/Concepts/computeoverview.htm

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Latest updates Cisco 820-605 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
From a Customer Success perspective, which reason to monitor your customer\\’s health is the most important?
A. It provides the opportunity to address any changes in the customer\\’s experience or actions around the solution
B. It allows the customer to identify unused licenses so they can be addressed via a service improvement plan
C. Understanding your customer\\’s health directly enables renewals
D. It gives the customer valuable insight so they can automatically renew critical on time
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.gainsight.com/customer-success-best-practices/how-to-score-customer-health/

 

QUESTION 2
A large university has deployed a new IT solution designed to improve the overall student and staff experience. Which
approach to measure success is the best?
A. Twice yearly student and staff surveys with two questions related to IT
B. Measure the number of complaints raised by students
C. Combination of tailored surveys and IT tools-based metrics
D. Implement staff Super Users to provide feedback
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which key industry trend explains the need for companies to invest in a Customer Success practice and Customer
Success Manager role?
A. Service organizations must evolve from a “break-fix” business model to proactive and pre-emptive services that help
prevent problems for customers before they arise and accelerate solution adoption. The CSM advises and professional
services team on the best services to the position.
B. IT budgets are shifting to the line of business decision-makers who want to understand the business outcomes from
technology investments before they purchase. The CSM supports sales with use cases and testimonials for proposed
solutions.
C. IT is increasingly adopting new consumption models. In a subscription economy, customers can cancel subscriptions
if business value and tangible outcomes are not realized. The CSM ensures that the customer\\’s business outcomes
are achieved with the shortest time to value.
D. The accelerated pace of innovation in the era of the Internet of Things confuses many customers. A CSM helps sales
position the right technologies that will accelerate success for their business.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
What is the best method to measure customer consumption of technology?
A. telemetry and analytics
B. recurring revenue management
C. enterprise CRM and incident management
D. content management
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
The customer wants to reduce their exposure to security events. Which business outcome is critical to the company\\’s
success?
A. risk management
B. market growth
C. sustainability
D. cost-efficiency
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which initial action does a Customer Success Manager take?dumpsdemo 820-605 exam questions q6

A. Run analysis on all the license types used by the customer on all platforms
B. Share the report with the customer point of contact for license types B and D and determine causes
C. Provide trending information on license types B and D and share with all stakeholders
D. Inform the Sales Account Manager to position a new version of licenses types B and D with additional features
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
A customer is coming up for renewal in 180 days for three solutions. One of the solutions has not been fully enabled.
The other two solutions are in regular use in production. How should the Customer Success Manager address the one the solution that has not been fully enabled?
A. Contact the services team and request that they reach out to the customer to address the solution
B. Make the renewals manager aware that the one solution is not fully implemented but the other two are fine
C. Investigate why the customer has not enabled the solution and work with the sales and renewals teams to address
the issue
D. No action is needed because the customer will probably renew and you can address the issue after the renewal
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which outcome is the best that a Customer Success Manager can achieve for a customer?
A. adoption of all the licenses and features the customer purchased leading to expansion to improve the customer\\’s
business
B. full adoption of all the technologies the customer purchased
C. removing barriers so the customer achieves the fastest time to value possible from the solution they purchased
D. ensuring the customer’s deployment teams and end users are trained and ready to adopt the technology
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop three valid elements of a success plan from the left to the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:dumpsdemo 820-605 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

dumpsdemo 820-605 exam questions q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
In which stage does the Customer Success Manager initially validate stakeholders?
A. onboarding
B. deployment
C. utilization
D. purchase
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which type of analytics has telemetry that shows the customer\\’s use of the software and defines what has happened
to date?
A. descriptive
B. diagnostic
C. prescriptive
D. predictive
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
A Customer Success Manager must deliver high touch customer success experience. Which customer engagement the model must be used?
A. Utilize a digital engagement so all your customers experience the touch of customer success
B. Utilize people to focus on the elite customers for a 1:1 or 1:few onsite customer success experience
C. Utilize the service team to form a larger internal team to lead the engagement
D. Utilize people to focus your customers in a 1:many customer success experience
Correct Answer: A

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[2020.5] Latest Cisco Systems Engineer 700-905 Exam pdf and Dump Practice Questions

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Latest Updates Cisco 700-905 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibitdumpsdemo exam questions q1

Which VIC model supports two-wire connectivity to each Fabric Interconnect?
A. VIC 1227
B. VIC 1557
C. VIC 1387
D. VIC 1457
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
When building a HyperFlex cluster which two recommendations should be followed? (Choose two.)
A. Use HX 220s for compute nodes and HX 240s for converged nodes
B. Use B-Series servers to improve the converged node scale.
C. Use the same CPU model but memory configuration can be different.
D. Use the same server configuration for the cluster.
E. Use the same server model for the cluster.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 3
HyperFlex virtual servers differ from regular servers in which two key areas? (Choose two.)
A. NVMe: Regular servers do not support NVMe drives for high availability.
B. No RAID is required to consolidate disks into a shared data platform.
C. CVM: Virtual appliance, which performs reading/writing, caching, deduplication, and compression.
D. SP: UCS Service Profiles are used to delineate MAC address pools from upstream networks.
E. CCC: Cisco Cloud Center is used for multi-cloud integration and seamless deployment.
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 4
How many vCPUs does the HXDP controller VM require?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 2
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
When local writing or reading is performed, the lOVisor intercepts the read/write requests and forwards them to CVMs
across the cluster This action allows non-local CVMs to be aware of the input/output requests so that they can perform
the appropriate input/output action lOVisor provides which two additional functionalities? (Choose two.)
A. provides redundancy when local CVM fails, offloading data processing to another CVM in the cluster
B. when an lOVisor fails, the CVM remains active and functional, which enables uninterrupted operation of the system
by forwarding 10 to another available lOVisor In the HyperFlex cluster
C. enables asynchronous replication of data across individual HyperFlex nodes with sub-second re-convergence
D. integration point for deployment of cloud-based SaaS offerings from eco-system partners
E. intercepts local virtual machines\\’ reads and writes and distributes them across the network eliminating hotspots
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 6
With which three components must every HyperFlex cluster be equipped with in regard to disks? (Choose three.)
A. NVMe drives
B. there are no specific requirements
C. same type of cache drives
D. same type and size of the capacity of drives
E. same number of capacity drives
F. SAS drives
Correct Answer: CDE

 

QUESTION 7
Which two components are automatically configured from the information provided to the HyperFlex installer? (Choose
two )
A. the network
B. operating system deployment preparation
C. controller VM configuration
D. application dependencies
E. server firmware policy
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 8
Which statement about Standalone Cisco UCS Server Deployments is valid?
A. They require Cisco Fabric Interconnects to operate, which reduces the Operating Expenses (OpEx) associated with
the deployment
B. They do not require Cisco Fabric Interconnects to operate, which reduces the Operating Expenses (OpEx)
associated with the deployment
C. They do not require Cisco Fabric Interconnects to operate, which reduces the Capital Expenses (CapEx) associated
with the deployment
D. They require Cisco Fabric Interconnects to operate, which reduces the Capital Expenses (CapEx) associated with
the deployment
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which three features do Managed Deployments provide? (Choose three.)
A. Great tor managing large deployments, scalability, and oversight of the UCS servers.
B. Consistent deployment by replicating working configurations from development labs to the production deployment
C. High availability of the management system and connectivity when using 2 Cisco Fabric Interconnects
D. Individual configuration of each redundant fabric or global configuration.
E. Increased operating overhead, raising Operating Expenses (OpEx)
F. Decentralized yet complex management of an entire UCS domain.
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 10
What is the maximum number of cores supported in the Cisco UCS M5 server?
A. 28
B. 22
C. 12
D. 8
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
A. creates hooks tor services related to third-party abstraction applications
B. does not perform caching, deduplication: and compression of data
C. an Ubuntu-based VM running in the control space of each individual server, having linear access to the server\\’s
VMs and networking controls
D. needs network access to ESXi. other CVMs, and management network
E. is installed automatically by the HyperFlex installer, configured through the installer
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 12
Drag the server type from the left onto the maximum number of capacity drives on the right.
Select and Place:

dumpsdemo exam questions q12

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[2020.5] Latest Cisco Specialist 700-765 Exam pdf and Dump Practice Questions

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Latest Updates Cisco 700-765 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
In which two ways should companies modernize their security philosophies? (Choose two.)
A. Expand their IT departments
B. Decrease internal access and reporting
C. Complement threat-centric tactics with trust-centric methods
D. Reinforce their threat-centric security tactics
E. Rebuild their security portfolios with new solutions
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 2
What are two solutions Cisco offers for web security? (Choose two.)
A. CRES
B. NGFW
C. Cloudlock
D. AMP for Web Security
E. Cognitive Intelligence
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 3
Which two security risks are created by legacy approaches to networking\\’? (Choose two.)
A. slow containment
B. user vulnerability
C. large attack surface
D. network downtime
E. access points
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 4
Which two attack vectors are protected by MFA? (Choose two.)
A. Endpoints
B. Mobile
C. Cloud
D. Web
E. Data center
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 5
Which feature of AnyConnect provides better access security across wired and wireless connections with 802.1X?
A. Trusted Network Detection
B. Secure Layer 2 Network Access
C. Flexible AAA Options
D. AnyConnect with AMP
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6
What is one of the key features of Cognitive Intelligence?
A. It enables safe email usage with event analytics
B. It enhances anonymity with URL filtering
C. Allows visibility into anonymous and encrypted communications
D. It enables greater threat intelligence with entity modeling
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 7
Which two attack vectors are protected by NGFW? (Choose two.)
A. Mobile
B. Data Center
C. Email
D. Web
E. Cloud
Correct Answer: BD

 

QUESTION 8
How does AMP\\’s file reputation feature help customers?
A. It increases the protection to systems with exact fingerprinting
B. It increases the accuracy of threat detection with Big Data analytics
C. It enables point in time detection through a one-to-one engine
D. It enables secure web browsing with cognitive threat analytics
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which two elements does Advanced Malware Protection provide? (Choose two.)
A. dynamic URL filtering
B. advanced analytics
C. dynamic data analysis
D. intrusion analysis
E. reputation analytics
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 10
What are two reasons why perimeter-based network security is no longer sufficient? (Choose two.)
A. More users
B. More devices
C. More IT professionals
D. More networks
E. More vulnerabilities
Correct Answer: BE


QUESTION 11
What are two steps customers can take to evolve to a trust-centric security philosophy? (Choose two.)
A. Require and install agents on mobile devices.
B. Block BYOD devices.
C. Limit internal access to networks
D. Always verify and never trust everything inside and outside the perimeter.
E. Only grant access to authorized users and devices.
Correct Answer: BE

 

QUESTION 12
Where do you start to achieve true network visibility?
A. OT
B. Branches
C. IT
D. Fabric Level
Correct Answer: D

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[New Version] 100% Pass With Latest IBM C9010-260 Dumps PDF Training Resources And Youtube

Update free latest IBM Certified Sales Specialist – Power Systems with POWER8 V2 C9010-260 dumps pdf training resources and dumps vce youtube demo. Get the best IBM Certified Sales Specialist – Power Systems with POWER8 V2 C9010-260 dumps exam practice files and study guides free try from lead4pass. https://www.lead4pass.com/c9010-260.html dumps pdf practice materials. High quality IBM Certified Sales Specialist – Power Systems with POWER8 V2 C9010-260 dumps exam questions and answers free download, pass IBM C9010-260 exam test easily at the first time.

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Vendor: IBM
Certifications: IBM Certified Sales Specialist – Power Systems with POWER8 V2
Exam Name: IBM Power Systems with POWER8 Sales Skills V2
Exam Code: C9010-260
Total Questions: 102 Q&As
C9010-260 dumps
QUESTION 1
An administrator notices that the QEZJOBLOG output queue has an unusually high number of entries. The same job name which runs many times throughout the day, and always ends normally, is associated with the output queue entries. Which job description change can be made to limit the number of job logs created?
A. Change the SPLFACN parameter to “NOLIST
B. Change the LOGCLPGM parameter to “NO
C. ChangetheLOGparameterto400NOLIST
D. Change the LOGOUTPUT parameter to “JOBEND
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2
Which statement is correct about installing system firmware on a single image system that has no HMC?
A. The updates are concurrent when PowerVM Enterprise Edition is installed.
B. The updates are always disruptive.
C. The updates are concurrent when the firmware version stays the same.
D. The updates are disruptive only when PowerVM Express is installed.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 3
An administrator wants to determine the remaining life of cache batteries in disk controllers. Where is this information presented?
A. In SST, under Hardware Service Manager
B. In the Work with Disk Status display
C. In SST, under Work With Disk Units and Display Disk Configuration
D. In IBM i Navigator, select Hardware and then Adapters
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
An administrator has been notified that company auditors will need access to a system for 14 days from the current date. The profiles are created but there is a well-defined company policy about inactive profiles. C9010-260 dumps
What can be done in each profile to insure the policy is enforced?
A. Set the USREXPDATE field to *USREXPITV
Set the USREXPITV field to 14
B. Set the SPCENV field to “EXPTEMP
Set the PWDEXPITV field to 14
C. Set thePWDEXPfieldto14
Set the USROPT field to *EXPSCD
D. Set the PWDEXPITV field to 14
Set the STATUS field to 8TMPACT
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is the purpose of the SAVSECDTA command?
A. To save user profiles, authorization lists, and authority holders
B. To save data in a secure encrypted format
C. To save system state security data and the associated authorization list
D. To save user data in a secured format and the encryption keys
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A CL program that runs after an IPL must complete and errors will be researched at a later time. How can all CPF massages be acknowledged so the program continues running?
A. Add a MONMSG(CPFOOOO) command immediately before the ENDPGM command.
B. Add a MONMSG(CPFOOOO) command after the ENDPGM command.
C. Add a MONMSG(CPFOOOO) command immediately after the PGM command.
D. Add a MONMSG(CPFOOOO) command before the PGM command.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 7
Which TCP/IP ports are valid when used to remotely connect via SSL or non-SSL to the HMC for 5250 console access?
A. 23 and 992
B. 2300 and 2301
C. 2100 and 2300
D. 22 and 23
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A system is configured with U.S. English as the primary language and Spanish as a secondary language.
Where is the language specified when setting up a new user profile for a Spanish speaking user?
A. The Language ID parameter in the user profile
B. The Locale parameter in the user profile
C. This user’s QLANGID environment variable
D. The Country ID parameter in the user profile
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
Which report in the Security Tools menu is used to find user profiles whose password is the same as the user profile and to take an action against the profiles?
A. Change activeprofile list
B. Analyze profile activity
C. Analyze default passwords
D. Disable default password profiles
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A system administrator has just changed the password of the QSECOFR user profile. After verifying the new password with a successful login to the operating system, the administrator attempts a login to System Service Tools with STRSST. All Service Tools login attempts fail with the error CPF225D Requesting service tools ID password not correct. C9010-260 dumps
Why is the administrator unable to login to System Service Tools with the new QSECOFR password?
A. The Service Tools password must be set to the default value before It can be changed.
B. The Service Tools security environment has not been configured to allow QSECOFR passwords to be synchronized.
C. The QSECOFR user profiles for System Service Tools and IBM i are not interchangeable and passwords must be maintainedindependently
D. The system value QLMTSECOFR (Limit security officer device access) is set to block sharing of passwords for QSECOFR.
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 11
What is an advantage of using the SAVLICPGM command?
A. The base and all optional components are included by default.
B. The objects related to the LPPs in libraries QGPL and QUSRSYS are included in the save.
C. The PTFs for the LPPs being saved are included.
D. The PTFs on the system saving the LPPs are removed.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administrator added a prestart job entry to the QCMN subsystem using the following command:
ADDPJE SBSD(QCMN) PGM(PGMA) INUOBS(350) THRESHOLD(250) ADUOBS(150) MAXUSE (200)
The entry is used extensively and many remote requests connect to the prestart jobs. After adding the entry, the administrator determines that the system periodically freezes and response time is slow.
What is the most likely cause of the problem?
A. The ADLJOBS parameter is too high and many system resources are used at the same time to generate new prestart jobs
B. The MAXUSE parameter is too low and a big job log is generated when the last request uses the prestart job.
C. There are not enough system resources in QCMN to handle the additional jobs.
D. The prestart job entry competes with the TCP/IP jobs
Correct Answer: B

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EMC DES-6321 exam exercise questions,DES-6321 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Specialist –Implementation Engineer, VxRail Appliance Version 1.0” Exam DES-6321. Here you can get the latest free EMC DES-6321 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills!

DES-6321 exam:

Hyperconverged solutions simplify IT operations while reducing operational costs. The VxRail Appliance allows businesses to start small when integrating into their datacenters and grown seamlessly.
Individuals (internals or partners) supportingVxRailcustomers are required to understand and follow the implementation services in addition to understanding the extended VxRail environment. Individuals will use the certification to validate their knowledge to support implementation activities. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.lead4pass.com/des-6321.html exam.

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Table of Contents:

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Specialist Implementation Engineer VxRail Appliance Exam:https://education.dellemc.com/content/dam/dell-emc/documents/en-us/DES-6321_Specialist-Implementation_Engineer_VxRail_Appliance_Exam.pdf

Free EMC DES-6321 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1
View the Exhibit.lead4pass des-6321 exam question q1Based on the exhibit, which interfaces should be used to reset the node through the Mobile Build Server?
A. 1 and 3
B. 1 and 2
C. 2 and 3
D. 1, 2 and 3
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
Which step is required to enable VxRail Manager capabilities to register the system, obtain product license files, update
system software, download VxRail documentation, and browse VxRail Community?
A. Enable the cluster/VDS/management accounts when using an external vCenter
B. Enable EMC Secure Remote Support (ESRS)
C. Configure VMware Secure Support Account (vSSA) access
D. Set the Username and Password for the Support Account
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which software is included with VxRail and provides continuous replication of virtual machines deployed on a VxRail
appliance?
A. VMware VM Snapshots
B. Dell EMC RecoverPoint for VMs
C. VMware vSphereData Protection
D. Dell EMC RecoverPoint CRR
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4
A planned VxRail deployment will use an External vCenter Server and syslog server. Which ping connectivity tests
should succeed and which should fail before the deployment?
A. Succeed: ESXi hosts and syslogFail: VxRail Manager and vCenter
B. Succeed: VxRail Manager and ESXi hostsFail: vCenter and syslog server
C. Succeed: vCenter and syslog serverFail: VxRail Manager and ESXi hosts
D. Succeed: VxRail Manager and syslogFail: vCenter and ESXi hosts
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 5
What is the VxRail maximum cluster size if using only 1 GbE links?
A. 8
B. 16
C. 32
D. 64 with an RPQ
Correct Answer: A
https://www.emc.com/collateral/specification-sheet/vxrail-4.0-spec-sheet.pdf

QUESTION 6
When using the RASR method to reset a VxRail node, which boot device is selected?
A. RASRUSB
B. SATADOM
C. IDRAC SD CARD
D. IDSDM
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 7
Which VxRail node type supports only hybrid storage?
A. S Series
B. E Series
C. G Series
D. V Series
Correct Answer: A
https://www.emc.com/en-us/converged-infrastructure/vxrail/index.htm#collapse=

QUESTION 8
Which requirement is optional for a VxRail Stretched Cluster?
A. Enterprise Plus vSphere Licensing
B. External vCenter
C. IPv6 Multicast between locations
D. Cross-site layer-2 connectivity
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 9
A company wants to deploy VxRail on V Series nodes as a proof-of-concept (POC). Only one Top of Rack (ToR) switch
has been provided for the POC.
What is the Dell EMC best practice recommendation in this situation?
A. Connect the first host NIC to the ToR switch. Leave the second host NIC un-cabled.
B. Connect each host NIC to a port on a different switch packet buffer bank on the ToRswitch. Balance the ports across
two packet buffer banks.
C. Inform the company that the POC cannot proceed without a second ToR switch.
D. Connect the first host NIC to the TOR switch. Daisy chain the second NIC between hosts.
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 10
When adding a VxRail node the validation fails. What could be the cause of this problem?
A. IPv6 multicasting is not enabled
B. Only one network interface online
C. Time on the node was not set correctly
D. DNS record was not created
Correct Answer: B
https://community.emc.com/thread/236186?start=0andtstart=0

QUESTION 11
Which integrated backup solution is included with VxRail at no additional cost?
A. Dell EMC Data Protection Suite
B. VMware vSphere Data Protection
C. VMware VM Snapshots
D. Dell EMC NetWorker
Correct Answer: B
https://www.emc.com/collateral/data-sheet/vxrail-datasheet.pdf

QUESTION 12
You have been asked to install a 7 node VxRail single socket 1 GbE G Series cluster. The company has requested
remote KVM support. How many RJ45 cables will be required?
A. 14
B. 21
C. 28
D. 35
Correct Answer: A
https://www.emc.com/collateral/technical-documentation/h15104-vxrail-appliance-techbook.pdf

QUESTION 13
A workstation is being configured on the management VLAN (10.150.140.0/24) to connect to VxRail Manager for first
time deployment.
Configuring which IP addresses on the workstation will result in a successful deployment without having to change them
during initialization?
A. 192.168.1.199 and 10.150.140.100
B. 192.168.1.250 and 10.150.140.255
C. 192.168.10.199 and 10.150.140.255
D. 192.168.10.250 and 10.150.140.250
Correct Answer: A 

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Dumpsdemo shares online exam exercise questions all year round! CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-002 exam “CompTIA Cloud+ shows you have the expertise needed for data center jobs.” https://www.lead4pass.com/cv0-002.html (342 Q&As).Continue to study and we provide an updated cisco CV0-002 exam practice questions and answers. You can practice the test online!

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CompTIA Cloud+ (CV0-002) reflects an emphasis on incorporating and managing cloud technologies as part of broader systems operations. It assumes a candidate will weave together solutions that meet specific business needs and work in a variety of different industries.
It includes the new technologies to support the changing cloud market as more organizations depend on cloud-based technologies to run mission-critical systems, and hybrid and multi-cloud have become the norm.

CV0-001:

CompTIA Cloud+ covers competency in cloud models, virtualization, infrastructure, security, resource management, and business continuity. Familiarity with any major hypervisor technologies for server virtualization is recommended.

CompTIA Cloud+ CV0-002 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

A company wants to take advantage of cloud benefits while retaining control of and maintaining compliance with all its

security policy obligations. Based on the non-functional requirements, which of the following should the company use? 

A. Hybrid cloud, as use is restricted to trusted customers 

B. IaaS, as the cloud provider has a minimal level of security responsibility 

C. PaaS, as the cloud customer has the most security responsibility 

D. SaaS, as the cloud provider has less security responsibility 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 2

A system administrator is tasked to harden a server so that it is not accessible using HTTP. Which of the following tools

or techniques should the administrator use to accomplish this? (Select two.) 

A. Change default passwords on the server 

B. Antivirus software 

C. Encryption software 

D. Disable port 80 

E. Disable port 443 

F. Firewall 

G. Patch management server 

Correct Answer: CD 

QUESTION 3

A university is running a DNA decoding project that will take seven years if it runs on its current internal mainframe. The

university negotiated a deal with a large cloud provider, which will donate its cloud resource to process the DNA

decoding during the low peak time throughout the world. Which of the following is the MOST important resource the

university should ask the cloud provider to donate? 

A. A large storage for the DNA decoding results 

B. A larger pipe to transfer the results 

C. A closer datacenter to the university 

D. Any available compute resource 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 4

A company has moved all on-premises workloads into a public cloud. After some time, the cloud engineer starts noticing

time drifts on the VMs and suspects an NTP issue. Time drifts were not an issue when all the workloads were on-

premises. 

Which of the following describes how the cloud engineer should resolve the issue? 

A. Implement Coordinated Universal Time on all workloads 

B. Point all workloads back to an on-premises NTP server 

C. Point all workloads to a stratum 2 within the public cloud provider 

D. Configure all of the VMs as NTP servers within the public cloud provider 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 5

Which of the following storage technologies is IP-based? 

A. SCSI 

B. DAS 

C. FCP 

D. NAS 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 6

Which of the following is the correct subnet mask for a VM with an IP address configuration of 192.168.1.10/24? 

A. 255.255.0.0 

B. 255.255.248.0 

C. 255.255.255.0 

D. 255.255.255.224 

Correct Answer: C 

QUESTION 7

A cloud administrator has finished building a virtual server template in a public cloud environment. The administrator is

now cloning six servers from that template. Each server is configured with one private IP address and one public IP

address. After starting the server instances, the cloud administrator notices that two of the servers do not have a public

IP address. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? 

A. The maximum number of public IP addresses has already been reached. 

B. The two servers are not attached to the correct public subnet. 

C. There is no Internet gateway configured in the cloud environment. 

D. The two servers do not have enough virtual network adapters attached. 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 8

A cloud administrator is provisioning several user accounts that have administrator rights to assets using JSON within

an IaaS cloud platform. The administrator is required to configure “alternate” settings using the API. Given this scenario,

which of the following elements would allow the administrator to meet these requirements in the JSON file? 

A. Statement 

B. Effect 

C. Resource 

D. Condition 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 9

An administrator has recently added a new host server to a private cloud environment. The host has two quad-core

processors and 128GB of RAM. The server will have ten guest servers that require a minimum of 1 CPU and 8GB of

RAM per server. Four of the servers will only be used during off hours. Which of the following should the administrator

implement to ensure that the guest servers have the proper resources? 

A. Dynamic CPU 

B. Redundancy 

C. NIC Teaming 

D. Dynamic RAM 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 10

An organization allows clients to retrieve information on earthquake events. This is a description of which of the

following classifications? 

A. XaaS 

B. DaaS 

C. CaaS 

D. SaaS 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 11

In a mission critical environment, performing maintenance operations on a host FIRST requires which of the following? 

A. Shutting down the host. 

B. Migrating all VMs off the host. 

C. Shutting down the VMs on the host. 

D. Pausing the VMs on the host 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 12

A company has just established a new branch office that needs to connect back to centrally hosted applications for day

to day operations. The branch office has noted that access to many company services are slow and causing a drop in

productivity. The company IT department has investigated a plan to improve performance across the link to the branch

office without having to pay for more bandwidth from the Internet Service Provider. This plan includes hardware that

after installation will allow for much faster access to day to day business applications. Which of the following terms

BEST describes the action taken by the IT department? 

A. LAN optimization 

B. WAN optimization 

C. Load balancing 

D. Bandwidth compression 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 13

An administrator is configuring a website in the cloud. Which of the following secure network protocols should the

administrator configure? 

A. HTTP 

B. IPSEC 

C. SSL 

D. SSH 

Correct Answer: C

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CompTIA Server+ SK0-004 Dumps practice testing questions and Answers | 100% Free

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Latest effective CompTIA Server+ SK0-004 Exam Practice Tests

QUESTION 1
Which of the following is the core software application that manages computer virtualization?
A. Hypervisor
B. Hyperthreading
C. Console
D. KVM
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 2
A technician is called upon to add storage to a database server. The database administrator needs the maximum
performance for accessing many small files. Which of the following specifications should the technician focus on when
selecting the drive to add to the server?
A. Form factor
B. Capacity
C. Bus bandwidth
D. Seek time
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 3
An administrator has been tasked with making recommendations for purchasing new disks for a low I/O file server.
Keeping in mind that budget and capacity are the primary concerns, which the following disk types should the
administrator recommend?
A. SATA
B. FC
C. SCSI
D. SAS
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4
Users on multiple network segments report that they are unable to retrieve email from a server. Which of the following
commands will allow a server technician to ensure that the email service is running on the server?
A. ifconfig
B. ipconfig
C. nbtstat
D. netstat
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 5
A system administrator is asked to set up several physical file serversthat have recently crashed due to apower failure.
Which of the following documents should the administrator refer toin order to complete this task?
A. Server configuration documentation
B. Network diagram
C. Asset management documentation
D. Dataflow diagram
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 6
A blade server chassis has two power supplies. Which of the following is a benefit of a technician connecting each
power supply to a separate UPS unit?
A. Quality of service
B. Fault tolerance
C. Traffic shaping
D. Load balancing
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 7
A server administrator is setting up a new set of hosts for an application that requires communication between all the
hosts on a dedicated private subnet. Initially, the configuration consists of four hosts and is expected to grow to 48 total
as the application is implemented for the entire company. When configuring the private subnet, which of the following
CIDR netmasks would allow for the full number of hosts once the application is fully in production with the least number
of unused addresses allocated?
A. /25
B. /26
C. /27
D. /28
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 8
A server technician is investigating a potential data breach. It is believed that the breach occurred via telnet access.
Which of the following could validate this hypothesis?
A. Port scanner
B. Cipher tools
C. Checksum analyzer
D. TDR
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 9
An ISPiscurrently drafting and compiling a Service Level Agreementthat states there should only be 5.26 minutes of
downtime per year, 25.9 secondsper month, and 6.05 secondsper week. Which of the following percentages should be
used to meet these metrics?
A. 99.9%
B. 99.99%
C. 99.999%
D. 99.9999%
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 10
A new version of the primary operating system used by a company has been released. Due to some significant changes
in the OS, a system administrator wants to see which remotely accessible services are enabled by default to assess the
security risk prior to upgrading to the new version. Which of the following utilities should the administrator use?
A. Cipher program
B. Port scanner
C. Telnet client
D. Packet sniffer
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 11
A system technician is asked to create a test environment that will consist of 45 computers and a file server. Which of
the following types of servers is BEST suited for IP management in the lab network?
A. Domain Name Service
B. Window Internet Naming Services
C. Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol
D. Routing and Remote Access
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 12
An administratordecidesto implement access control techniques tosecurea datacenter. Which of the following would be
the STRONGEST technique for the administrator to use?
A. Multifactor authentication
B. RFID chip
C. Cipher locks
D. Bollards
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 13
An administrator would like to determine what port and services are running locally on a server. Which of the following
Windows command lines and shell tools should the administrator use? (Select THREE).
A. get-services
B. show ports
C. sc query
D. netstat
E. vmstat
F. show services
Correct Answer: ACD

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The best CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-103 dumps exam questions and answers download free try from lead4pass. New CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-103 dumps pdf materials and vce youtube demo update free shared. “CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] 1” is the name of CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI https://www.lead4pass.com/lx0-103.html exam dumps which covers all the knowledge points of the real CompTIA exam. Useful latest CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-103 dumps pdf training resources and study guides free download, pass CompTIA LX0-103 exam test easily.

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Certifications: CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI
Exam Name: CompTIA Linux+ [Powered by LPI] 1
Exam Code: LX0-103
Total Questions: 120 Q&As

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New CompTIA Linux+ Powered by LPI LX0-103 Dumps Exam Questions And Answers (1-40)

QUESTION 1
Which SysV init configuration file should be modified to disable the ctrl-alt-delete key combination?
A. /etc/keys
B. /proc/keys
C. /etc/inittab
D. /proc/inittab
E. /etc/reboot
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2
During a system boot cycle, what program is executed after the BIOS completes its tasks?
A. The bootloader
B. The inetd program
C. The init program
D. The kernel
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3
Which run levels should never be declared as the default run level when using SysV init? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. 0
B. 1
C. 3
D. 5
E. 6
Correct Answer: AE

QUESTION 4
Which of the following statements is correct when talking about /proc/?
A. All changes to files in /proc/ are stored in /etc/proc.d/ and restored on reboot.
B. All files within /proc/ are read-only and their contents cannot be changed.
C. All changes to files in /proc/ are immediately recognized by the kernel.
D. All files within /proc/ are only readable by the root user.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 5
What of the following statements are true regarding /dev/ when using udev? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Entries for all possible devices get created on boot even if those devices are not connected.
B. Additional rules for udev can be created by adding them to /etc/udev/rules.d/.
C. When using udev, it is not possible to create block or character devices in /dev/ using mknod.
D. The /dev/ directory is a filesystem of type tmpfs and is mounted by udev during system startup.
E. The content of /dev/ is stored in /etc/udev/dev and is restored during system startup.
Correct Answer: BD

QUESTION 6
Which of the following information is stored within the BIOS? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. Boot device order
B. Linux kernel version
C. Timezone
D. Hardware configuration
E. The system’s hostname
Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 7
Which of the following commands reboots the system when using SysV init? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. shutdown -r now
B. shutdown -r “rebooting”
C. telinit 6
D. telinit 0
E. shutdown -k now “rebooting”
Correct Answer: AC

QUESTION 8
Which of the following are init systems used within Linux systems? LX0-103 dumps (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. startd
B. systemd
C. Upstart
D. SysInit
E. SysV init
Correct Answer: BCE

QUESTION 9
What information can the lspci command display about the system hardware? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. Device IRQ settings
B. PCI bus speed
C. System battery type
D. Device vendor identification
E. Ethernet MAC address
Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 10
Which of the following commands brings a system running SysV init into a state in which it is safe to perform maintenance tasks? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. shutdown -R 1 now
B. shutdown -single now
C. init 1
D. telinit 1
E. runlevel 1
Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 11
What is the first program that is usually started, at boot time, by the Linux kernel when using SysV init?
A. /lib/init.so
B. /sbin/init
C. /etc/rc.d/rcinit
D. /proc/sys/kernel/init
E. /boot/init
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 12
Which of the following commands will write a message to the terminals of all logged in users?
A. bcast
B. mesg
C. print
D. wall
E. yell
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 13
Which of the following kernel parameters instructs the kernel to suppress most boot messages?
A. silent
B. verbose=0
C. nomesg
D. quiet
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 14
Which of the following options for the kernel’s command line changes the systemd boot target to rescue.target instead of the default target?
A. systemd.target=rescue.target
B. systemd.runlevel=rescue.target
C. systemd.service=rescue.target
D. systemd.default=rescue.target
E. systemd.unit=rescue.target
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 15
After modifying GNU GRUB’s configuration file, which command must be run for the changes to take effect?
A. kill -HUP $(pidof grub)
B. grub-install
C. grub
D. No action is required
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 16
Which of the following commands is used to update the list of available packages when using dpkg based package management?
A. apt-get update
B. apt-get upgrade
C. apt-cache update
D. apt-get refresh
E. apt-cache upgrade
Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 17
LX0-103 dumps Which of the following commands lists the dependencies of a given dpkg package?
A. apt-cache depends-on package
B. apt-cache dependencies package
C. apt-cache depends package
D. apt-cache requires package
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 18
Which of the following options is used in a GRUB Legacy configuration file to define the amount of time that the GRUB menu will be shown to the user?
A. hidemenu
B. splash
C. timeout
D. showmenu
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 19
What can the Logical Volume Manager (LVM) be used for? (Choose THREE correct answers.)
A. To create RAID 9 arrays.
B. To dynamically change the size of logical volumes.
C. To encrypt logical volumes.
D. To create snapshots.
E. To dynamically create or delete logical volumes.
Correct Answer: BDE

QUESTION 20
Which of the following commands updates the linker cache of shared libraries?
A. mkcache
B. soconfig
C. mkldconfig
D. lddconfig
E. ldconfig
Correct Answer: E

QUESTION 21
What does the command mount -a do?
A. It mounts all available filesystems onto the current directory.
B. It shows all mounted filesystems.
C. It mounts all user mountable filesystems for the current user.
D. It mounts all filesystems listed in /etc/fstab which have the option auto set.
E. It mounts all filesystems listed in /etc/fstab which have the option noauto set.
Correct Answer: D

QUESTION 22
Which of the following commands set the sticky bit for the directory /tmp? (Choose TWO correct answers.)
A. chmod +s /tmp
B. chmod +t /tmp
C. chmod 1775 /tmp
D. chmod 4775 /tmp
E. chmod 2775 /tmp
Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 23
Which of the following commands can be used to display the inode number of a given file?
A. inode
B. ls
C. ln
D. cp
Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 24
Which of the following commands shows the definition of a given shell command?
A. where
B. stat
C. type
D. case
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 25
What do the permissions -rwSr-xr-x mean for a binary file when it is executed as a command?
A. The command is SetUID and it will be executed with the effective rights of the owner.
B. The command will be executed with the effective rights of the group instead of the owner.
C. The execute flag is not set for the owner. Therefore the SetUID flag is ignored.
D. The command will be executed with the effective rights of the owner and group.
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 26
Which of the following pieces of information of an existing file is changed when a hard link pointing to that file is created?
A. File size
B. Modify timestamp
C. Link count
D. Inode number
E. Permissions
Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 27
Which file in the /proc filesystem lists parameters passed from the bootloader to the kernel? (Specify the file name only without any path.)
Correct Answer: cmdline, /proc/cmdline

QUESTION 28
Which command will display messages from the kernel that were output during the normal boot sequence?
Correct Answer: dmesg, /bin/dmesg

QUESTION 29
Which world-writable directory should be placed on a separate partition in order to prevent users from being able to fill up the / filesystem? LX0-103 dumps (Specify the full path to the directory.)
Correct Answer: /tmp, tmp, /var/tmp, /tmp/, /var/tmp/

QUESTION 30
In which directory must definition files be placed to add additional repositories to yum?
Correct Answer: /etc/yum.repos.d, /etc/yum.repos.d/, yum.repos.d, yum.repos.d/

QUESTION 31
What is the name of the main configuration file for GNU GRUB? (Specify the file name only without any path.)
Correct Answer: menu.lst, grub.conf, grub.cfg

QUESTION 32
Which option to the yum command will update the entire system? (Specify ONLY the option name without any additional parameters.)
Correct Answer: update, upgrade

QUESTION 33
Which command will disable swapping on a device? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: swapoff, /sbin/swapoff

QUESTION 34
Which Debian package management tool asks the configuration questions for a specific already installed package just as if the package were being installed for the first time? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: dpkg-reconfigure

QUESTION 35
Which signal is missing from the following command that is commonly used to instruct a daemon to reinitialize itself, including reading configuration files?
killall -s _______ daemon
Correct Answer: HUP, SIGHUP, 1

QUESTION 36
Which command displays a list of all background tasks running in the current shell? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: jobs

QUESTION 37
Which Bash environment variable defines in which file the user history is stored when exiting a Bash process? (Specify ONLY the variable name.)
Correct Answer: HISTFILE

QUESTION 38
Which command is used in a Linux environment to create a new directory? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: mkdir, /usr/bin/mkdir

QUESTION 39
Which command is used to create and initialize the files used to store quota information? (Specify ONLY the command without any path or parameters.)
Correct Answer: quotacheck

QUESTION 40
Which umask value will result in the default access permissions of 600 (rw——-) for files and 700 (rwx——) for directories? (Specify only the numerical umask value.)
Correct Answer: 0077, 077

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