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Microsoft 70-345 Practice testing questions from Youtube

latest updated Microsoft 70-345 exam questions and answers

QUESTION 1
HOTSPOT
You are designing an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization will use a single namespace of
mail.contoso.com for all client access protocols.
You plan to use load balancers.
You identify the following requirements for the load balancing solution:
The Edge Transport server log files must contain the original IP address of the SMTP hosts.
Clients must be able to connect only when they use the approved hostnames and the approved virtual directories.
You need to identify which type of load balancer meets each requirement. What should you identify? To answer, select
the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-345 exam questions q1

 

QUESTION 2
You need to configure the virtual directories for the Exchange Server organization.
Which three commands should you use? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
A. Set-MapiVirtualDirectory -ExternalUrl “https://office-online.contoso.com/hosting/discovery”
B. Set-ActiveSyncVirtualDirectory -ExternalUrl “https://mail.contoso.com/Microsoft-Server-ActiveSync”
C. Set-WebServicesVirtualDirectory -ExternalUrl “https://mail.contoso.com/ews/exchange.asmx”
D. Set-AutodiscoverVirtualDirectory -ExternalUrl “https://autodiscover.contoso.com/autodiscover/autodiscover.xml”
E. Set-OwaVirtualDirectory -ExternalUrl “https://mail.contoso.com/owa”
Correct Answer: BCD
B: Use the Set-ActiveSyncVirtualDirectory cmdlet to modify existing Microsoft Exchange ActiveSync virtual directories
that are used in Internet Information Services (IIS) on Exchange servers.
C: Use the Set-WebServicesVirtualDirectory cmdlet to modify existing Exchange Web Services virtual directories that
are used in Internet Information Services (IIS) on Microsoft Exchange servers.
D: Use the Set-AutodiscoverVirtualDirectory cmdlet to configure Autodiscover virtual directories that are used in Internet
Information Services (IIS) on Exchange servers. Incorrect Answers:
A: Use the Set-MapiVirtualDirectory cmdlet to modify Messaging Application Programming Interface (MAPI) virtual
directories that are used in Internet Information Services (IIS) on Microsoft Exchange servers. servers. A MAPI virtual
directory is used by supported versions of Microsoft Outlook to connect to mailboxes by using the MAPIHTTP protocol.
E: Use the Set-OwaVirtualDirectory cmdlet to modify existing outlook on the web virtual directories that are used in
Internet Information Services (IIS) on Exchange servers.
https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/bb123679(v=exchg.160).aspx https://technet.microsoft.com/enus/library/aa998601(v=exchg.160).aspx

 

QUESTION 3
You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization.
The organization contains three Mailbox servers named EX01, EX02, and EX03.
The servers are members of a database availability group (DAG).
You have a mailbox database named DB01. DB01 is replicated to EX01 and EX02.
You need to add a replica of DB01 to EX03. The replica must meet the following requirements:

Transaction log files must not be applied to the replica for seven days after they are generated.

Transaction log files must be preserved for one day after they are applied to the database copy. What command should
you run? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-345 exam questions q3

 

QUESTION 4
HOTSPOT
You have an Exchange Server organization. The organization contains four servers. The servers configured as shown
in the following table.lead4pass 70-345 exam questions q4

ou plan to upgrade the organization to Exchange Server 2016. You need to identify which functionalities from the
current environment can be implemented in Exchange Server 2016. What should you identify? To answer, select the
appropriate options in the answer area.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-345 exam questions q4-1

 

QUESTION 5
You need to ensure that members of a group named Relecloudadmins can create user accounts and mailboxes for new
employees by using the Exchange Admin Center (EAC) after the planned upgrade. What should you do first?
A. Run the New-ManagementRole cmdlet.
B. Run the New-ManagementRoleAssignment cmdlet.
C. Run setup.exe and specify the /PrepareDomain parameter.
D. Run setup.exe and specify the /prepared parameter.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 6
Your company has an Exchange Server 2016 organization named contoso.com.
You need to recommend a solution that meets the following requirements:
A user named User1 must be able to send email messages by using an alias of [email protected] in the From field.
Recipients of the messages must be prevented from identifying the actual sender of the message.
User1 and a user named User2 must each receive a copy of replies to [email protected]
What should you recommend?
A. Create a distribution group named Sales that has an alias of Sales. Add User1 and User2 to the group. Assign the
Send As permissions to User1.
B. Create a shared mailbox named Sales that has an Alias of Sales. Assign the Receive As permission User1 and
User2. Assign the Send As permissions to User1.
C. Create a shared mailbox named Sales that has an Alias of Sales. Assign the Receive As permission User1 and
User2. Assign the Send on Behalf permission to User1.
D. Create a distribution group named Sales that has an alias of Sales. Add User1 and User2 to the group. Assign the
send on Behalf permission to User1.
Correct Answer: A
References: http://exchangeserverpro.com/exchange-2010-send-as-permissions-distribution-group/

 

QUESTION 7
Your network contains a single Active Directory forest. The forest contains two sites named Site1 and Site2.
You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization contains two servers on each site. You have a
database availability group (DAG) that spans both sites. The file share witness is in Site1.
If a power failure occurs at Site1, you plan to mount the databases in Site2.
When the power is restored in Site1, you need to prevent the databases from mounting in Site1.
What should you do?
A. Disable AutoReseed for the DAG.
B. Implement an alternate file share witness.
C. Configure Datacenter Activation Coordination (DAC) mode.
D. Force a rediscovery of the network when the power is restored.
Correct Answer: C
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd979790(v=exchg.150).aspx

 

QUESTION 8
Your company has an Exchange Server 2016 organization.
All users have a primary mailbox and archive mailboxes.
You create a new retention policy for the users. The policy includes the following types of tags:
A default retention policy tag (RPT) applied to the mailbox: The tag is configured to move email messages older than
three years to the archive.
An RPT applied to the users\\’ Sent Items folder: The tag is configured to move email messages older than one year to
the archive.
The corporate retention policy is applied to all of the mailboxes.
A user creates a personal tag named Tag1. The personal tag is configured to delete items permanently after 180 days.
The user sends an email message that uses Tag1. You need to identify what will occur to the message. What should you identify?
A. The message will be deleted in six months.
B. The message will be moved to the archive in one year.
C. The message will be moved to the archive in one year and deleted six months later.
D. The message will be moved to the archive in three years.
Correct Answer: A
Personal tags allow your users to determine how long an item should be retained. For example, the mailbox can have a
DPT to delete items in seven years, but a user can create an exception for items such as newsletters and automated
notifications by applying a personal tag to delete them in three days.
References: https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dd297955(v=exchg.150).aspx

 

QUESTION 9
Your company has two offices. Each office contains a data center. Each data center is configured as a separate Active
Directory site.
The data centers contain five servers that have Exchange Server 2016 installed. The servers are configured as shown
in the following table.lead4pass 70-345 exam questions q9

All of the servers are members of a database availability group (DAG) named DAG1. Each server contains several
mailbox database copies.
You plan to shut down EX1 to replace several hardware components. You expect that EX1 will be restarted in one
week.
You need to manually exclude EX1 from cluster voting during the planned maintenance period.
What should you run?
A. Set-MailboxServer EX1 –DatabaseCopyAutoActivationPolicy Blocked
B. Stop-DatabaseAvailabilityGroup DAG1 –Mailbox Server EX1 Restore-DatabaseAvailabilityGroup
–ActiveDirectorySite Site1
C. Stop-DatabaseAvailabilityGroup DAG1 –ActiveDirectorySite Site1 Restore-DatabaseAvailabilityGroup
–ActiveDirectorySite Site2
D. Remove-DatabaseAvailabilityGroupServer EX1
Correct Answer: B
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/database-availability-groups/stopdatabaseavailabilitygroup?view=exchange-ps https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/powershell/module/exchange/databaseavailability-groups/restore-databaseavailabilitygroup?view=exchange-ps

 

QUESTION 10
You have an Exchange Server 2016 organization.
You need to assign the following permissions:
A user named User1 must be able to monitor the Exchange services and components.
A user named User2 must be able to install provisioned Exchange servers.
The solution must use the principle of least privilege.
Which role should you assign to each user? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-345 exam questions q10

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-345 exam questions q10-1

 

QUESTION 11
HOTSPOT
You are planning an Exchange Server 2016 organization. The organization will contain two servers. The servers will be
configured as shown in the following table.lead4pass 70-345 exam questions q11

You plan to purchase an SSL certificate that contains the following names: Mail.contoso.com Mail.london.contoso.com
Mail.newyork.contoso.com You plan to configure a solution for the sites in New York and London. DNS will resolve the
names as shown in the following table.

lead4pass 70-345 exam questions q11-1

You need to configure the client protocols to meet the following requirements:
Users who connect to their mailbox by using Outlook on the web must connect directly to a server in the site that hosts
their mailbox. All Exchange ActiveSync users must connect to the same namespace. How should you configure the
virtual
directories? To answer, select the appropriate options in the Answer area.
Hot Area:

lead4pass 70-345 exam questions q11-2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-345 exam questions q11-3

QUESTION 12
You have an Exchange Server 2016 on-premises organization and a Microsoft Office 365 tenant.
All mailboxes are hosted on-premises.
You need to implement an archiving solution for all users.
The solution must ensure that all mailbox content older than 18 months is moved to Personal Archives in Office 365.
What should you implement?
A. A default policy tag (DPT)
B. A retention policy
C. A personal tag
D. A retention policy tag (RPT)
E. A retention hold
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 13
You need to recommend changes to the existing environment to meet the high-availability requirements for the mailbox
databases. What should you recommend?
A. Run the Update-MailboxDatabaseCopy cmdlet.
B. Deploy a file share witness in Azure.
C. Run the Set-MailboxServer cmdlet.
D. Deploy a file share witness to a branch office.
Correct Answer: B

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP
You plan to apply Text Analytics API features to a technical support ticketing system.
Match the Text Analytics API features to the appropriate natural language processing scenarios.
To answer, drag the appropriate feature from the column on the left to its scenario on the right. Each feature may be
used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ai-900 exam questions q1

Box1: Sentiment analysis
Sentiment Analysis is the process of determining whether a piece of writing is positive, negative, or neutral.
Box 2: Broad entity extraction
Broad entity extraction: Identify important concepts in the text, including key
Key phrase extraction/ Broad entity extraction: Identify important concepts in the text, including key phrases and named
entities such as people, places, and organizations.
Box 3: Entity Recognition
Named Entity Recognition: Identify and categorize entities in your text as people, places, organizations, date/time,
quantities, percentages, currencies, and more. Well-known entities are also recognized and linked to more information
on the
web.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/data-guide/technology-choices/natural-language-processing
https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/services/cognitive-services/text-analytics

 

QUESTION 2
DRAG DROP
Match the Microsoft guiding principles for responsible AI to the appropriate descriptions.
To answer, drag the appropriate principle from the column on the left to its description on the right. Each principal may
be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:

lead4pass ai-900 exam questions q2

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ai-900 exam questions q2-1

Box 1: Reliability and safety To build trust, it\\’s critical that AI systems operate reliably, safely, and consistently under
normal circumstances and unexpected conditions. These systems should be able to operate as they were originally
designed, respond safely to unanticipated conditions, and resist harmful manipulation.
Box 2: Fairness Fairness: AI systems should treat everyone fairly and avoid affecting similarly situated groups of people
in different ways. For example, when AI systems provide guidance on medical treatment, loan applications, or
employment, they should make the same recommendations to everyone with similar symptoms, financial
circumstances, or professional qualifications.
We believe that mitigating bias starts with people understanding the implications and limitations of AI predictions and
recommendations. Ultimately, people should supplement AI decisions with sound human judgment and be held
accountable for consequential decisions that affect others.
Box 3: Privacy and security As AI becomes more prevalent, protecting privacy and securing important personal and
business information are becoming more critical and complex. With AI, privacy and data security issues require especially
close attention because access to data is essential for AI systems to make accurate and informed predictions and
decisions about people. AI systems must comply with privacy laws that require transparency about the collection, use,
and storage of data and mandate that consumers have appropriate controls to choose how their data is used
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/learn/modules/responsible-ai-principles/4-guiding-principles

 

QUESTION 3
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass ai-900 exam questions q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ai-900 exam questions q3-1

The Text Analytics API is a cloud-based service that provides advanced natural language processing over raw text, and
includes four main functions: sentiment analysis, key phrase extraction, named entity recognition, and language
detection.
Box 1: Yes You can detect which language the input text is written in and report a single language code for every
document submitted on the request in a wide range of languages, variants, dialects, and some regional/cultural
languages. The language code is paired with a score indicating the strength of the score.
Box 2: No
Box 3: Yes Named Entity Recognition: Identify and categorize entities in your text as people, places, organizations,
date/time, quantities, percentages, currencies, and more. Well-known entities are also recognized and linked to more
information on the web.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cognitive-services/text-analytics/overview

 

QUESTION 4
Which type of machine learning should you use to predict the number of gift cards that will be sold next month?
A. classification
B. regression
C. clustering
Correct Answer: C
Clustering, in machine learning, is a method of grouping data points into similar clusters. It is also called segmentation.
Over the years, many clustering algorithms have been developed. Almost all clustering algorithms use the features of
individual items to find similar items. For example, you might apply clustering to find similar people by demographics.
You might use clustering with text analysis to group sentences with similar topics or sentiment.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/machine-learninginitialize-model-clustering

 

QUESTION 5
You need to create a training dataset and validation dataset from an existing dataset.
Which module in the Azure Machine Learning designer should you use?
A. Select Columns in Dataset
B. Add Rows
C. Split Data
D. Join Data
Correct Answer: C
A common way of evaluating a model is to divide the data into a training and test set by using Split Data, and then
validate the model on the training data.
Use the Split Data module to divide a dataset into two distinct sets.
The studio currently supports training/validation data splits
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/how-to-configure-cross-validation-data-splits2

 

QUESTION 6
HOTSPOT
For each of the following statements, select Yes if the statement is true. Otherwise, select No.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:lead4pass ai-900 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ai-900 exam questions q6-1

Box 1: Yes
In machine learning, if you have labeled data, that means your data is marked up or annotated, to show the target,
which is the answer you want your machine learning model to predict.
In general, data labeling can refer to tasks that include data tagging, annotation, classification, moderation, transcription,
or processing.
Box 2: No
Box 3: No
Accuracy is simply the proportion of correctly classified instances. It is usually the first metric you look at when
evaluating a classifier. However, when the test data is unbalanced (where most of the instances belong to one of the
classes), or
you are more interested in the performance on either one of the classes, accuracy doesn\\’t really capture the
effectiveness of a classifier.
Reference:
https://www.cloudfactory.com/data-labeling-guide
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio/evaluate-model-performance

 

QUESTION 7
Your website has a chatbot to assist customers.
You need to detect when a customer is upset based on what the customer types in the chatbot.
Which type of AI workload should you use?
A. anomaly detection
B. semantic segmentation
C. regression
D. natural language processing
Correct Answer: D
Natural language processing (NLP) is used for tasks such as sentiment analysis, topic detection, language detection,
keyphrase extraction, and document categorization.
Sentiment Analysis is the process of determining whether a piece of writing is positive, negative, or neutral.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/data-guide/technology-choices/natural-language-processing

 

QUESTION 8
A company employs a team of customer service agents to provide telephone and email support to customers.
The company develops a web chatbot to provide automated answers to common customer queries.
Which business benefit should the company expect as a result of creating the web chatbot solution?
A. increased sales
B. a reduced workload for the customer service agents
C. improved product reliability
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
To complete the sentence, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass ai-900 exam questions q9

In machine learning, if you have labeled data, that means your data is marked up or annotated, to show the target,
which is the answer you want your machine learning model to predict.
In general, data labeling can refer to tasks that include data tagging, annotation, classification, moderation, transcription,
or processing.
Incorrect Answers:
Not features: In machine learning and statistics, feature selection is the process of selecting a subset of relevant, useful
features to use in building an analytical model. Feature selection helps narrow the field of data to the most valuable
inputs. Narrowing the field of data helps reduce noise and improve training performance.
Reference:
https://www.cloudfactory.com/data-labeling-guide

 

QUESTION 10
HOTSPOT
You have the following dataset.lead4pass ai-900 exam questions q10

You plan to use the dataset to train a model that will predict the house price categories of houses.
What are Household Income and House Price Category? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio/interpret-model-results

 

QUESTION 11
Which metric can you use to evaluate a classification model?
A. true positive rate
B. mean absolute error (MAE)
C. coefficient of determination (R2)
D. root mean squared error (RMSE)
Correct Answer: A
What does a good model look like?
A ROC curve that approaches the top left corner with a 100% true positive rate and a 0% false-positive rate will be the best
model. A random model would display as a flat line from the bottom left to the top right corner. Worse than random
would dip below the y=x line.
Reference:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/how-to-understand-automated-ml#classification

 

QUESTION 12
DRAG DROP
Match the types of machine learning to the appropriate scenarios.
To answer, drag the appropriate machine learning type from the column on the left to its scenario on the right. Each
machine learning type may be used once, more than once, or not at all.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Select and Place:lead4pass ai-900 exam questions q12

Correct Answer:

lead4pass ai-900 exam questions q12-1

Box 1: Regression
In the most basic sense, regression refers to the prediction of a numeric target.
Linear regression attempts to establish a linear relationship between one or more independent variables and a numeric
outcome, or dependent variable.
You use this module to define a linear regression method, and then train a model using a labeled dataset. The trained model can then be used to make predictions.
Box 2: Classification
Classification is a machine learning method that uses data to determine the category, type, or class of an item or row of
data.
Box 3: Clustering
Clustering, in machine learning, is a method of grouping data points into similar clusters. It is also called segmentation.
Over the years, many clustering algorithms have been developed. Almost all clustering algorithms use the features of
individual items to find similar items. For example, you might apply clustering to find similar people by demographics.
You
might use clustering with text analysis to group sentences with similar topics or sentiment.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/machine-learning/studio-module-reference/linear-regression

 

QUESTION 13
Which two scenarios are examples of a conversational AI workload? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. a telephone answering service that has a pre-recorded message
B. a chatbot that provides users with the ability to find answers on a website by themselves
C. telephone voice menus to reduce the load on human resources
D. a service that creates frequently asked questions (FAQ) documents by crawling public websites
Correct Answer: BC
B: A bot is an automated software program designed to perform a particular task. Think of it as a robot without a body.
C: Automated customer interaction is essential to a business of any size. In fact, 61% of consumers prefer to
communicate via speech, and most of them prefer self-service. Because customer satisfaction is a priority for all
businesses, self-service is a critical facet of any customer-facing communications strategy.
Incorrect Answers:
D: Early bots were comparatively simple, handling repetitive and voluminous tasks with relatively straightforward
algorithmic logic. An example would be web crawlers used by search engines to automatically explore and catalog web
content.
Reference: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/data-guide/big-data/ai-overview
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/architecture/solution-ideas/articles/interactive-voice-response-bot

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QUESTION 1
DRAG DROP You need to configure the attribute relationship types for the Salesperson dimension. Which configuration
should you use to answer, drag the appropriate pair of attributes and attribute relationships from the list to the correct
location or locations in the answer area? (Answer choices may be used once, more than once, or not
all.)
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-467 exam questions q1

Note:
*
you connect a “higher-level” attribute to a “lower-level” attribute.
*
Best practice design says relationships should be rigid (bold filled lines) when members aren\\’t shifting around.
Example:

lead4pass 70-467 exam questions q1-1

 

QUESTION 2
You are designing a partitioning strategy for a large fact table in a data warehouse.
Tens of millions of new records are loaded into the data warehouse weekly, outside of business hours. Most queries are
generated by reports and cube processing. Data is frequently queried at the day level and occasionally at the month
level.
You need to partition the table to maximize the performance of queries.
What should you do(More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)
A. Partition the fact table by month, and compress each partition.
B. Partition the fact table by week.
C. Partition the fact table by year.
D. Partition the fact table by day, and compress each partition.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 3
You are designing a partitioning strategy for a large fact table in a Manufacturing data warehouse.
Tens of millions of new inventory fact records are loaded into the data warehouse weekly, outside of business hours.
Most queries against the database are generated by reports and by cube processing. Data is frequently queried at the
day
level and occasionally at the month level.
A. Partition the inventory fact table by year.
B. Partition the inventory fact table by week.
C. Partition the inventory fact table by day, and compress each partition.
D. Partition the inventory fact table by month, and compress each partition.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
Several reports are based on the same SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) cube. Each report has several datasets
defined with complex Multidimensional Expressions (MDX) queries. The company maintains separate development,
test
and production environments.
The reports are running slowly. You plan to analyze report performance. You have the following requirements:
1.
Monitor query statistics on the production server with as little server overhead as possible.
2.
Gather, replay, and analyze statistics on the test server with as little administrative effort as possible.
3.
Identify the longest-running queries on both servers.
4.
Document statistics on disk reads on both servers.
You need to gather statistics and meet the requirements.
Which features should you use?
To answer, drag the appropriate feature or features to the correct location or locations in the answer area. (Use only
features that apply.)
Select and Place:lead4pass 70-467 exam questions q4

 

QUESTION 5
You need to define the trend calculation for the sales performance KPI. Which KPI trend MDX expression should you
use?
A. CASE WHEN [Sales Variance %]
B. IIF([Sales Variance %3
C. IIF([Sales Variance %]
D. CASE WHEN [Sales Variance %]
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
A company maintains separate environments for development, test, and production. The company uses the project deployment model for SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) deployments.
You create an SSIS project to perform a daily refresh of the data warehouse and data models. The project has five
packages.
You need to configure the project to ensure that the development, test, and production teams can run each package
without manually adding server-specific information.
Which program should you use? To answer, select the appropriate program in the answer area.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-467 exam questions q6

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-467 exam questions q6-1

 

QUESTION 7
You are redesigning a SQL Server Analysis Services (SSAS) database that contains a cube named Sales. Before the
initial deployment of the cube, partition design was optimized for processing time. The cube currently includes five
partitions named FactSalesl through FactSales5. Each partition contains from 1 million to 2 million rows.
The FactSales5 partition contains the current year\\’s information. The other partitions contain information from prior
years; one year per partition. Currently, no aggregations are defined on the partitions.
You remove fact rows that are more than five years old from the fact table in the data source and configure query logs
on the SSAS server.
Several queries and reports are running very slowly.
You need to optimize the partition structure and design aggregations to improve query performance and minimize
administrative overhead.
What should you do(More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)
A. Use the Usage-Based Optimization Wizard to create aggregations for the current partitions.
B. Use the Aggregation Design Wizard to create aggregations for the current partitions.
C. Combine all the partitions into a single partition. Use the Usage-Based Optimization Wizard to create aggregations.
D. Combine all the partitions into a single partition. Use the Aggregation Design Wizard to create aggregations.
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 8
A group of report writers develops reports. The report writers currently use Report Builder 1.0 and report models. The
report writers are not trained in SQL Server query writing. Their report assignments come from various departments
within
the organization.
The company is upgrading to SQL Server 2012 with SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) in native mode. After the
upgrade, reports will retrieve data from a large new data warehouse that will reside on an instance of the SQL Server
2012
Database Engine. Reports for each department will retrieve data from only a subset of the data warehouse tables.
You are designing the data access strategy. You have the following requirements:
Ensure that report writers can create only reports that display data which they have database permissions to view.
Minimize the effort required to update connection strings for all reports developed by the report writers.
Minimize the number of fields visible in a specific report for report writers who work for multiple departments.
You need to design the data access strategy.
What should you do(More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)
A. Create report models by using SQL Server Data Tools (SSDT). Include data sources and data source views for each
department\\’s data requirements. Configure each data source to use integrated security.
B. Create one shared data source that uses integrated security. Create an embedded dataset for each report.
C. Create one shared data source that uses integrated security. Create one shared dataset that includes all tables
required by the report writers.
D. Create one shared data source that uses integrated security. Create a shared dataset for each department\\’s data
requirements.
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 9
HOTSPOT
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package configuration strategy.
The package configuration must meet the following requirements:
Include multiple properties in a configuration.
Force packages to load all settings in the configuration.
Support Encrypting File System (EFS) formats.
You need to select the appropriate configuration.
Which configuration type should you use to answer, select the appropriate option from the drop-down list in the dialog
box.
Hot Area:lead4pass 70-467 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 70-467 exam questions q9-1

Note:
Package Configuration Types
The following table describes the package configuration types.
*
SQL Server table
A table in a SQL Server database contains the configuration. The table can include multiple configurations.
*
XML configuration file
An XML file contains the configurations. The XML file can include multiple configurations.
*
Environment variable
An environment variable contains the configuration.
*
Registry entry
A Registry entry contains the configuration.
*
Parent package variable
A variable in the package contains the configuration. This configuration type is typically used to update properties in
child packages.
Reference: Package Configurations

 

QUESTION 10
A company runs SQL Server Database Engine and SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) in native mode. Reports are
based on data that is cached in multiple shared datasets. Source data is purged each day at midnight for regulatory
compliance purposes. The shared datasets may continue to cache data that should not be used in reports. Shared
report schedules are often paused during nightly server maintenance windows.
Reports must not return purged data.
You need to create a fully automated solution to ensure that reports do not deliver purged data.
What should you do(More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)
A. Create a shared schedule. Configure the datasets to expire on the shared schedule.
B. Write a script that calls the flushcache method to clear individual items from the SSRS cache. Create a SQL Server
Agent job that runs rs.exe with the script as an input file, and schedules the job to run every day after the purge process
completes.
C. Create a SQL Server Agent job that uses a Transact-SQL (T-SQL) step to delete the data from the
dbo.ExecutionCache table in the ReportServerTempDB database. Schedule the job to run every day after the purge
process completes.
D. Republish the cached datasets by using SQL Server Data Tools.
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 11
You need to re-establish subscriptions on SSRS01. What should you do?
A. Start the SQL Server Agent on SSRS01.
B. Restore the ReportServer database.
C. Restore the ReportServerTempDB database.
D. Use the SQL Server Configuration Manager to reset the SQL Service account credentials.
Correct Answer: A


QUESTION 12
You have a SQL Server Reporting Services (SSRS) 2008 instance integrated with an Internet-facing Microsoft
SharePoint 2010 farm. PerformancePoint Services and Excel Services are installed and configured.
You need to upgrade to SSRS 2012 with the minimum downtime and hardware requirements.
What should you do(More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)
A. Migrate SSRS content to a separate instance of SSRS 2012 on the same server.
B. Perform an in-place upgrade of the SSRS environment.
C. Migrate SSRS content to new servers that run SSRS 2012.
D. Install SSRS 2012 on a new SharePoint farm and migrate content to the new farm.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) solution. The solution will contain an SSIS project that
includes several SSIS packages. Each SSIS package will define the same connection managers and variables.
You have the following requirements:
Ensure that the deployment model supports changing the content of connection strings by using parameters at
execution time.
Ensure that the deployment model automatically starts from calls to the catalog.start_execution stored procedure in the
SSISDB database.
Maximize performance at execution time.
Minimize development effort.
You need to design a solution that meets the requirements.
What should you do(More than one answer choice may achieve the goal. Select the BEST answer.)
A. Use a project deployment model. Modify connection manager properties to use project parameters. Ensure that the
SSISDB database is created.
B. Use a project deployment model. Configure connections in an XML configuration file referenced by an environment
variable that corresponds to the SQL Server environment of each SSIS package.
C. Use a package deployment model. Use a SQL Server package configuration with a common filter. Change the
contents of the SSIS Configurations table at runtime.
D. Use a package deployment model. Save each SSIS package to a file share that can be accessed from all
environments.
Correct Answer: A

 

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Lead4Pass shares the latest Cisco 600-660 dumps questions and exam tips

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Latest updates Cisco 600-660 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A network engineer configured an active-active firewall cluster that is stretched across separate pods in the Cisco ACI
fabric. Which two implementation setups for anycast services are available? (Choose two.)
A. Modify the Cisco ACI contract scope
B. Modify the MAC address on the second firewall
C. Configure the firewalls behind an EPG subnet
D. Deselect No Default SVI Gateway under EPG Subnet
E. Deploy a Layer 4 to Layer 7 service graph with PBR
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 2
Which two actions should be taken to ensure a scalable solution when multiple EPGs in a VRF require unrestricted
communication? (Choose two.)
A. Configure a taboo contract between the EPGs that require unrestricted communication between each other.
B. Enable Preferred Group Member under the EPG Collection for VRF section.
C. Set the VRF policy control enforcement preference to Unenforced.
D. Set the EPGs that require unrestricted communication between each other as preferred group members.
E. Set the EPGs that require policy enforcement between each other as preferred group members.
Correct Answer: CD
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/4-x/basic-configuration/Cisco-APICBasic-Configuration-Guide-42x/Cisco-APIC-Basic-Configuration-Guide-42x_chapter_0110.html

 

QUESTION 3lead4pass 600-660 exam questions q3

Refer to the exhibit. Two application profiles are configured in the same tenant and different VRFs. Which contract the scope is configured to allow communication between the two application profiles?
A. global
B. VRF
C. application
D. tenant
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/apic/sw/1-x/Operating_ACI/guide/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI/b_Cisco_Operating_ACI_chapter_01000.html

 

QUESTION 4
What are the two characteristics of Cisco ACI interaction with MSTP? (Choose two.)
A. A Cisco ACI leaf flushes all local endpoints in the received EPG when an MSTP TCN frame is received.
B. A static path binding is required for native VLAN to carry the MST BPDUs in existing EPGs.
C. Mis-cabling protocol is used to snoop the MSTP TCN packets.
D. A dedicated EPG must be created for the native VLAN ID with static bindings toward the MSTP-enabled switches.
E. The PVST simulation must be configured on external network switches to support MSTP.
Correct Answer: CD

 

QUESTION 5
An engineer configures a new Cisco ACI Multi-Pod setup. Which action should be taken for fabric discovery to be
successful for the nodes in Pod 2?
A. Select the Route Reflector field in Pod Peering
B. Enable the DSCP class-cos translation policy for Layer 3 traffic
C. Configure POD 2 Data Plane TEP under the Pod Connection Profile
D. Add the IPN subnet under the Fabric External Routing Profile
Correct Answer: D

 

QUESTION 6lead4pass 600-660 exam questions q6

An organization migrates its virtualized servers from a legacy environment to Cisco ACI. VM1 is incorrectly attached to
PortGroup IT|3TierApp|Web. Which action limits IP address learning in BD1?
A. Enable Enforce Subnet Check
B. Enable Rouge Endpoint Control
C. Enable GARP-based EP Move Detection Mode
D. Disable Remote EP Learn
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 7lead4pass 600-660 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration mode must be selected for the VMM vSwitch Port Channel policy to avoid MAC
flapping on the Cisco UCS Fls and Cisco ACI leaf switches?
A. LACP Passive
B. MAC Pinning
C. LACP Active
D. Static Channel?Mode On
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
An engineer designers a Cisco ACI Multi-Pod solution that requires a pair of active-standby firewalls in different pods for
external connectivity. How should the firewalls be implemented?
A. PBR for routed firewalls
B. separate L3Out peerings for routed firewalls
C. routed firewall for the default gateway
D. transparent firewalls
Correct Answer: D
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/solutions/collateral/data-center-virtualization/application-centricinfrastructure/white-paper-c11-739571.html

 

QUESTION 9
What does the VXLAN source port add to the overlay packet forwarding when it uses the hash of Layer 2, Layer 3, and
Layer 4 headers of the inner packet?
A. ECMP
B. TCP optimization
C. disabled fragmentation
D. jumbo frames
Correct Answer: A
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/support/docs/lan-switching/vlan/212682-virtual-extensible-lan-and-ethernetvirt.html

 

QUESTION 10lead4pass 600-660 exam questions q10

Refer to the exhibit. Which feature is available across sites if EPGs are stretched?
A. active-active high-availability firewall clustering
B. Layer 3 routing between sites
C. Layer 2 flooding across sites
D. live virtual machine migration
Correct Answer: B
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/switches/datacenter/aci/aci_multisite/sw/1x/fundamentals/b_Cisco_ACI_Multi-Site_Fundamentals/b_ACI_Multi-Zone_Fundamentals_chapter_01.pdf (6)

 

QUESTION 11lead4pass 600-660 exam questions q11

Refer to the exhibit. A customer experiences resource overconsumption on one of its border leaf switches. Which action
should be taken to reduce the consumption on this switch?
A. Disable VRF Policy Control Enforcement
B. Disable IP Data Plane Learning
C. Migrate L3Outs to another switch
D. Disable Remote EP Learning
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12lead4pass 600-660 exam questions q12

Refer to the exhibit. What must be configured in the service graph to redirect HTTP traffic between the EPG client and
EPG server to go through the Cisco ASA firewall?
A. contract filter to allow ARP and HTTP
B. precise filter to allow only HTTP traffic
C. contract with no filter
D. permit-all contract filter
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 13lead4pass 600-660 exam questions q13

Refer to the exhibit. Which two configuration steps are required in ISN for the Cisco ACI Multi-Site setup? (Choose two.)
A. Connect Spine2 to ISN routers.
B. Configure BIDIR-PIM throughout the ISN
C. Increase ISN MTU to support the maximum MTU that is sent by endpoints
D. Configure OSPF between spines and ISN routers
E. Enable IGMPv3 on ISN routers
Correct Answer: DE

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Lead4Pass shares the latest Cisco 010-151 dumps questions and exam tips

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Latest updates Cisco 010-151 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
Which five things should the administrator verify after performing maintenance or replacing a blade server? (Choose
five.)
A. blade server status
B. hard drive status
C. host OS boot status
D. CPU status
E. mezzanine card status
F. memory DIMM status
G. fan and power status
Correct Answer: ABDEF

 

QUESTION 2
A company wants to build a data center infrastructure that can provide up to 99.982% uptime availability per year.
Which ANSI/TIA-942 data center tier meets the requirement?
A. Redundant-distribution site infrastructure
B. Redundant-capacity component site infrastructure
C. Concurrently maintainable site infrastructure
D. Basic site infrastructure
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.doc.ic.ac.uk/~jgiceva/teaching/ssc18-cloud.pdf page 16

 

QUESTION 3
Drag the cable or connector on the left to the correct interface on the right.
Select and Place: Select and Place:lead4pass 010-151 exam questions q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 010-151 exam questions q3-1

QUESTION 4
Which two external features are in the Cisco UCS C125 M5 Compute Node? (Choose two.)A. PCle Risers
B. USB 3.0 port
C. Supercap unit
D. SD card slots
E. SAS/SATA drives
Correct Answer: AB
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/hw/C125/install/C125.pdf page 2

 

QUESTION 5
Which command saves the active configuration to NVRAM?
A. copy startup-config running-config
B. copy active-config backup-config
C. copy running-config startup-config
D. copy backup-config active-config
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 6
Which two commands display the version of the Cisco NX-OS code that the device is currently running on? (Choose two.)
A. show version
B. show module
C. show interface
D. show boot
E. show license
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 7lead4pass 010-151 exam questions q7

Refer to the exhibit. Which statement correctly identifies the hardware features on the Cisco Nexus 9500 Series
supervisor A modules?
A. A is the 10/100/1000 Management port; B is the USB port; C is the Console port; D is the external clock input
B. A is the Console port; B is the USB port; C is the 10/100/1000 Management port; D is the external clock input
C. A is the Optical port; B is the USB port; C is the 10/100/1000 Management port; D is the external clock input
D. A is the Console port; B is the USB port; C is the 10/100/1000 Management port; D is the Diagnostic port
Correct Answer: B

lead4pass 010-151 exam questions q7-1

Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/products/collateral/switches/nexus-9000-series-switches/white-paperc11-729987.html

 

QUESTION 8
Which type of optics module is supported by a 6-port 40 GE Cisco Nexus 7000 M2 Series I/O module?
A. CPAK
B. QSFP+
C. SFP/SFP+
D. CFP
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 9
Drag the password recovery procedures on a Cisco NX-OS switch from the left to the right and place them in order.
Select and Place:lead4pass 010-151 exam questions q9

Select and Place:

lead4pass 010-151 exam questions q9-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass 010-151 exam questions q9-2

QUESTION 10
Which two specialized tools do you need to service a UCS product? (Choose two.)
A. Laptop
B. Anti-static Strap
C. KVM Console to USB 2.0 Portable Laptop Crash Cart
D. Cable Tester
E. Needle-nose pliers
Correct Answer: AB

 

QUESTION 11
Which two statements about Cisco UCS S3260 Storage Server are true? (Choose two.)
A. AMD EPYC 7000 series processors, with up to 32 cores per socket
B. Up to 1 TB of Intel Optane DC Persistent Memory
C. It is in a compact 2-RU form factor.
D. Support for the Cisco 12-G 9460-8i PCle SAS RAID controller
E. Massive 840-TB data storage capacity
Correct Answer: DE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/dam/en/us/products/collateral/servers-unified-computing/ucs-s-series-storageservers/s3260-specsheet.pdf

 

QUESTION 12
Which statement is true about cloud deployment models?
A. A public cloud is typically infrastructure used by a single organization.
B. Public clouds are more expensive than private clouds.
C. Hybrid cloud supports multiple organizations sharing computing resources that are part of a community.
D. Public clouds are less secure than private clouds.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 13
Which two firmware components does the Host Upgrade Utility upgrade? (Choose two.)
A. Fabric Interconnect firmware
B. Cisco UCS Infrastructure software
C. Cisco UCS Manager
D. CIMC
E. System BIOS
Correct Answer: DE
Reference: https://www.cisco.com/c/en/us/td/docs/unified_computing/ucs/c/sw/lomug/2-0-x/3_0/b_huu_3_0_1/b_huu_2_0_13_chapter_011.html

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Latest updates Microsoft DP-200 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
A company plans to analyze a continuous flow of data from a social media platform by using Microsoft Azure Stream
Analytics. The incoming data is formatted as one record per row.
You need to create the input stream.
How should you complete the REST API segment? To answer, select the appropriate configuration in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
Hot Area:

lead4pass dp-200 exam questions q1 lead4pass dp-200 exam questions q1-1

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam questions q1-2 lead4pass dp-200 exam questions q1-3

QUESTION 2
You have an Azure SQL database named DB1 that contains a table named Table1. Table1 has a field named
Customer_ID that is varchar(22).
You need to implement masking for the Customer_ID field to meet the following requirements: The first two prefix characters must be exposed.
The last four prefix characters must be exposed.
All other characters must be masked.
Solution: You implement data masking and use an email function mask.
Does this meet the goal?
A. Yes
B. No
Correct Answer: B
Must use Custom Text data masking, which exposes the first and last characters and adds a custom padding string in
the middle.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-dynamic-data-masking-get-started

QUESTION 3
You need to ensure that phone-based polling data can be analyzed in the PollingData database.
Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions
to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place: 

lead4pass dp-200 exam questions q3

Correct Answer:

lead4pass dp-200 exam questions q3-1

Explanation/Reference:
All deployments must be performed by using Azure DevOps. Deployments must use templates used in multiple
environments No credentials or secrets should be used during deployments

QUESTION 4
Contoso, Ltd. plans to configure existing applications to use the Azure SQL Database.
When security-related operations occur, the security team must be informed.
You need to configure Azure Monitor while minimizing administrative effort.
Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Create a new action group to email [email protected]
B. Use [email protected] as an alert email address.
C. Use all security operations as a condition.
D. Use all Azure SQL Database servers as a resource.
E. Query audit log entries as a condition.
Correct Answer: ACD
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/azure-monitor/platform/alerts-action-rules

QUESTION 5
You manage a solution that uses Azure HDInsight clusters.
You need to implement a solution to monitor cluster performance and status.
Which technology should you use?
A. Azure HDInsight .NET SDK
B. Azure HDInsight REST API
C. Ambari REST API
D. Azure Log Analytics
E. Ambari Web UI
Correct Answer: E
Ambari is the recommended tool for monitoring utilization across the whole cluster. The Ambari dashboard shows easily
glanceable widgets that display metrics such as CPU, network, YARN memory, and HDFS disk usage. The specific
metrics shown depend on the cluster type. The “Hosts” tab shows metrics for individual nodes so you can ensure the load
on your cluster is evenly distributed.
The Apache Ambari project is aimed at making Hadoop management simpler by developing software for provisioning,
managing, and monitoring Apache Hadoop clusters. Ambari provides an intuitive, easy-to-use Hadoop management
web UI backed by its RESTful APIs.
References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-us/blog/monitoring-on-hdinsight-part-1-an-overview/
https://ambari.apache.org/

QUESTION 6
You manage the Microsoft Azure Databricks environment for a company. You must be able to access a private Azure
Blob Storage account. Data must be available to all Azure Databricks workspaces. You need to provide data
access. Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of
actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.
Select and Place: lead4pass dp-200 exam questions q6

Step 1: Create a secret scope
Step 2: Add secrets to the scope
Note: duties.secrets.get(scope = “”, key = “”) gets the key that has been stored as a secret in a secret scope.
Step 3: Mount the Azure Blob Storage container
You can mount a Blob Storage container or a folder inside a container through Databricks File System – DBFS. The mount is a pointer to a Blob Storage container, so the data is never synced locally.
Note: To mount a Blob Storage container or a folder inside a container, use the following command:
Python dbutils.fs.mount(
source = “wasbs://@.blob.core.windows.net”, mount_point = “/mnt/”,
extra_configs = {“”:dbutils.secrets.get(scope = “”, key = “”)})
where:
dbutils.secrets.get(scope = “”, key = “”) gets the key that has been stored as a secret in a secret scope.
References:
https://docs.databricks.com/spark/latest/data-sources/azure/azure-storage.html

QUESTION 7
What should you implement to optimize SQL Database for Race Central to meet the technical requirements?
A. the sp_updatestored procedure
B. automatic tuning
C. Query Store
D. the dbcc checkdbcommand
Correct Answer: A
Scenario: The query performance of Race Central must be stable, and the administrative time it takes to perform
optimizations must be minimized.
sp_update updates query optimization statistics on a table or indexed view. By default, the query optimizer already
updates statistics as necessary to improve the query plan; in some cases, you can improve query performance by using
UPDATE STATISTICS or the stored procedure sp_updatestats to update statistics more frequently than the default
updates.
Incorrect Answers:
D: dbcc checks the logical and physical integrity of all the objects in the specified database

QUESTION 8
You plan to implement an Azure Cosmos DB database that will write 100,000 JSON every 24 hours. The database will
be replicated in three regions. Only one region will be writable.
You need to select a consistency level for the database to meet the following requirements:
Guarantee monotonic reads and writes within a session.
Provide the fastest throughput.
Provide the lowest latency.
Which consistency level should you select?

A. Strong
B. Bounded Staleness
C. Eventual
D. Session
E. Consistent Prefix
Correct Answer: D
Session: Within a single client session reads are guaranteed to honor the consistent-prefix (assuming a single “writer”
session), monotonic reads, monotonic writes, read-your-writes, and write-follows-reads guarantees. Clients outside of
the session performing writes will see eventual consistency.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/consistency-levels

QUESTION 9
You have an Azure SQL database that has masked columns.
You need to identify when a user attempts to infer data from the masked columns.
What should you use?
A. Azure Advanced Threat Protection (ATP)
B. custom masking rules
C. Transparent Data Encryption (TDE)
D. auditing
Correct Answer: D
Dynamic Data Masking is designed to simplify application development by limiting data exposure in a set of pre-defined
queries used by the application. While Dynamic Data Masking can also be useful to prevent accidental exposure of
sensitive data when accessing a production database directly, it is important to note that unprivileged users with ad-hoc
query permissions can apply techniques to gain access to the actual data. If there is a need to grant such ad-hoc
access, Auditing should be used to monitor all database activity and mitigate this scenario.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/sql/relational-databases/security/dynamic-data-masking

QUESTION 10
Which two metrics should you use to identify the appropriate RU/s for the telemetry data? Each correct answer presents
part of the solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.
A. Number of requests
B. Number of requests exceeded capacity

C. End to end observed read latency at the 99
D. Session consistency
E. Data + Index storage consumed
F. Avg Throughput/s
Correct Answer: AE
Scenario: The telemetry data must be monitored for performance issues. You must adjust the Cosmos DB Request
Units per second (RU/s) to maintain a performance SLA while minimizing the cost of the Ru/s.
With Azure Cosmos DB, you pay for the throughput you provision and the storage you consume on an hourly basis.
While you estimate the number of RUs per second to provision, consider the following factors:
Item size: As the size of an item increases, the number of RUs consumed to read or write the item also increases.

QUESTION 11
A company has a SaaS solution that uses Azure SQL Database with elastic pools. The solution contains a dedicated
database for each customer organization. Customer organizations have peak usage at different periods during the
year.
You need to implement the Azure SQL Database elastic pool to minimize cost.
Which option or options should you configure?
A. Number of transactions only
B. eDTUs per database only
C. Number of databases only
D. CPU usage only
E. eDTUs and max data size
Correct Answer: E
The best size for a pool depends on the aggregate resources needed for all databases in the pool. This involves
determining the following:
Maximum resources utilized by all databases in the pool (either maximum DTUs or maximum vCores depending on your
choice of resourcing model).
Maximum storage bytes utilized by all databases in the pool.
Note: Elastic pools enable the developer to purchase resources for a pool shared by multiple databases to
accommodate unpredictable periods of usage by individual databases. You can configure resources for the pool based
either on the
DTU-based purchasing model or the vCore-based purchasing model. References:
https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/sql-database/sql-database-elastic-pool 

QUESTION 12
You are developing a data engineering solution for a company. The solution will store a large set of key-value pair data
by using Microsoft Azure Cosmos DB.
The solution has the following requirements:
Data must be partitioned into multiple containers.
Data containers must be configured separately.
Data must be accessible from applications hosted around the world.
The solution must minimize latency.
You need to provision Azure Cosmos DB.
A. Cosmos account-level throughput.
B. Provision an Azure Cosmos DB account with the Azure Table API. Enable geo-redundancy.
C. Configure table-level throughput.
D. Replicate the data globally by manually adding regions to the Azure Cosmos DB account.
E. Provision an Azure Cosmos DB account with the Azure Table API. Enable multi-region writes.
Correct Answer: E
The scale read and write throughput globally. You can enable every region to be writable and elastically scale reads and
writes all around the world. The throughput that your application configures on an Azure Cosmos database or a
container is guaranteed to be delivered across all regions associated with your Azure Cosmos account. The provisioned
throughput is guaranteed up by financially-backed SLAs.
References: https://docs.microsoft.com/en-us/azure/cosmos-db/distribute-data-globally

QUESTION 13
Your company uses Azure SQL Database and Azure Blob storage.
All data at rest must be encrypted by using the company\\’s own key. The solution must minimize administrative effort
and the impact on applications that use the database.
You need to configure security.
What should you implement? To answer, select the appropriate option in the answer area.
NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

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EMC DEA-64T1 exam exercise questions, DEA-64T1 dumps easy to prepare for passing exams

Associate – Converged Systems and Hybrid Cloud Version 2.0” Exam DEA-64T1. Here you can get the latest free EMC DEA-64T1 exam exercise questions and answers for free and easily improve your skills! DEA-64T1 exam: Successfully obtaining this certification validates the candidate’s understanding of Digital and IT Transformation, and how Dell EMC Converged Systems can be used to accelerate the transformation process. Follow the link to find more information about https://www.lead4pass.com/dea-64t1.html exam.

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Free EMC DEA-64T1 Exam Practice Questions

QUESTION 1

Which product provides storage for a VxBlock? 

A. Dell EMC VMAX 

B. Cisco UCS 

C. Cisco Nexus 

D. VMware vSphere 

Correct Answer: A 

Reference: https://shop.dellemc.com/en-us/VxBlock-and-Vblock-Products/Dell-EMC-VxBlock-System-1000/p/Dell-EMC-VxBlock-System-1000 

QUESTION 2

What is one factor that differentiates a public cloud from a private cloud? 

A. Applications and data are managed by the customer in a private cloud 

B. Private cloud resources are owned and managed by a single entity 

C. Firewall protection is not required in a private cloud 

D. Private cloud resources must reside on the company\\’s premises 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 3

Which Dell EMC Hyper-Converged Infrastructure solution provides a foundation for IaaS and supports multiple

hypervisors? 

A. VxRail 

B. VxRack FLEX 

C. VxRack SDDC 

D. VxBlock 

Correct Answer: B 

Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/vxrack-1000-overview.pdf 

QUESTION 4

A software development company wants to refresh their existing infrastructure. One of their goals is to enable faster

development times for their products. The development teams indicate that their biggest delays are caused by having to

wait for the infrastructure teams to provision new VMs and networks for test environments. 

Which Dell EMC platform would meet all of the company\\’s requirements without the addition of optional components? 

A. VxBlock 500 

B. VxRack FLEX 

C. VxRack SDDC 

D. VxRail 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 5

What are key focal areas of iTaaS? 

A. Operational efficiency, rapid response, and infrastructure 

B. Business outcomes, operational efficiency, and competitiveness 

C. Business requirements, competitiveness, and cost-center implementation 

D. Rapid response, infrastructure, and business requirements 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 6

Which security concept focuses on minimizing the number of security breach points on the platform? 

A. Vulnerability Management 

B. Security Event Management 

C. Threat Management 

D. Identity Access Management 

Correct Answer: D 

QUESTION 7

What are components of identity access management in Pivotal Cloud Foundry? 

A. Application security groups and firewalls 

B. Tokens and SSO 

C. Releases and stemcells 

D. Event logging and monitoring 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 8

What would cause an IT organization to pursue digital disruption? 

A. Currently having a flexible organization structure 

B. Experiencing stable operational costs 

C. Experiencing increasing resource maintenance costs 

D. Maintaining current vendor relationships being a priority 

Correct Answer: A 

QUESTION 9

VxBlock compute servers use which storage access topology to boot the operating system? 

A. NAS 

B. iSCSI SAN 

C. LAN 

D. FC SAN 

Correct Answer: D 

Reference: https://www.emc.com/collateral/technicaldocumentation/vxblock-1000-architecture-overview.pdf 

QUESTION 10

What are benefits of network virtualization? 

A. Improved storage efficiency and simplified data protection. 

B. Support for collaboration and automation of tasks 

C. Enhanced network security and improved network performance 

D. Enabling of over-provisioning and improved cost-efficiency 

Correct Answer: C 

Reference: https://www.sdxcentral.com/sdn/network-virtualization/definitions/nv-in-the-data-center/ 

QUESTION 11

Which Dell EMC product provides storage management and visibility to multi-vendor storage arrays in virtualized and

cloud environments? 

A. VMware SRM 

B. ViPR Controller 

C. ViPR SRM 

D. VMware Storage vMotion 

Correct Answer: C 

Reference: https://www.emc.com/techpubs/vipr/intro_to_vipr_srm-1.htm 

QUESTION 12

What physical resource is divided up by compute resource virtualization to create virtual resources? 

A. SAAS controller 

B. RAM 

C. ROM 

D. PCI bus 

Correct Answer: B 

QUESTION 13

What are components of the Dell EMC VxRail system? 

A. VMware vSphere, VMware SDDC Manager, and Dell EMC VxRail Manager 

B. VMware NSX, VMware VSAN, and VMware SDDC Manager 

C. VMware vSphere, VMware VSAN, and Dell EMC VxRail Manager 

D. VMware vSphere, VMware VSAN, and Dell EMC ScaleIO 

Correct Answer: C 

Reference: https://wuchikin.wordpress.com/2017/03/17/emc-vxrail-overview/ 

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[2020.7] latest collection of Oracle certification exam exercise questions and answers

The most popular Oracle exam certification exercise questions and tips.
(Oracle 1z0-062 exam, Oracle 1z0-071 exam, Oracle 1z0-144 exam, Oracle 1z0-750 exam, Oracle 1z0-1084-20 exam, Oracle 1z0-1085-20 exam) Exam-Box shares the latest exam exercise questions and answers for free.
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Table of Contents:

Popular Oracle 1z0-062 List

Latest Oracle 1z0-062 Exam Video

Oracle Database 12c Administration 1Z0-062 – Oracle University: https://education.oracle.com/oracle-database-12c-administration/pexam_1Z0-062

[2020.7] Popular Oracle 1z0-062 exam practice questions(1-5)

QUESTION 1

Which three statements are true about the Automatic Workload Repository (AWR)? (Choose three.)
A. An AWR snapshot shows the SQL statements that are producing the highest load on the system, based on criteria
such as elapsed time and CPU time.
B. AWR data is stored in memory and in a database.
C. All AWR tables belong to the SYSTEM schema.
D. The manageability monitor (MMON) process gathers statistics and creates an AWR snapshot that is used by the self-tuning components in a database.
E. An AWR snapshot contains system-wide tracing and logging information.

Correct Answer: ABD

QUESTION 2

You determine that database performance is sub-optimal due to hard parsing statements. Automatic Shared Memory
Management (ASMM) is disabled for your database instance. Which tool would you use to get advice on how to improve
performance?
A. Memory Advisor for the PGA
B. SQL Access Advisor
C. Memory Advisor for the shared pool
D. SQL Tuning Advisor

Correct Answer: C

References: http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E25178_01/server.1111/e10897/montune.htm#CHDGFCFJ

QUESTION 3

Which component resides in the System Global Area (SGA) of a database instance only in shared server connections?
A. User Global Area
B. Program Global Area
C. SQL Query Result Cache
D. PL/SQL Function Result Cache

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 4

To implement Automatic Management (AMM), you set the following parameters:

dumpsdemo 1z0-062 q4

When you try to start the database instance with these parameter settings, you receive the following error message:
SQL > startup
ORA-00824: cannot set SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET due to existing internal settings, see alert log for more
information.
Identify the reason the instance failed to start.
A. The PGA_AGGREGATE_TARGET parameter is set to zero.
B. The STATISTICS_LEVEL parameter is set to BASIC.
C. Both the SGA_TARGET and MEMORY_TARGET parameters are set.
D. The SGA_MAX_SIZE and SGA_TARGET parameter values are not equal.

Correct Answer: B

Example: SQL> startup force ORA-00824: cannot set SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET due to existing internal
settings ORA-00848: STATISTICS_LEVEL cannot be set to BASIC with SGA_TARGET or MEMORY_TARGET

QUESTION 5

Which two statements are true about standard database auditing? (Choose two.)
A. DDL statements can be audited.
B. Statements that refer to a standalone procedures can be audited.
C. Operations by the users logged on as SYSDBA cannot be audited.
D. Only one audit record is ever created for a session per audited statement even though it is executed more than
once.

Correct Answer: AB

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Oracle Database SQL | 1Z0-071 – Oracle University:https://education.oracle.com/oracle-database-sql/pexam_1Z0-071

[2020.7] Popular Oracle 1z0-071 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1

Which two statement are true regarding table joins available in the Oracle Database server? (Choose two.)
A. You can use the ON clause to specify multiple conditions while joining tables.
B. You can explicitly provide the join condition with a NATURAL JOIN.
C. You can use the JOIN clause to join only two tables.
D. You can use the USING clause to join tables on more than one column.

Correct Answer: AD

QUESTION 2

Which three statements are true? (Choose three.)
A. The data dictionary is created and maintained by the database administrator.
B. The data dictionary views consist of joins of dictionary base tables and user-defined tables.
C. The usernames of all the users including database administrators are stored in the data dictionary.
D. The USER_CONS_COLUMNS view should be queried to find the names of columns to which constraints apply.
E. Both USER_OBJECTS and CAT views provide the same information about all objects that are owned by the user.
F. Views with the same name but different prefixes, such as DBA, ALL and USER, reference the same base tables from
the data dictionary.

Correct Answer: CDF

References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/B10501_01/server.920/a96524/c05dicti.htm

QUESTION 3

Which two statements are true about single-row functions? (Choose two.)
A. CEIL: can be used for positive and negative numbers
B. FLOOR: returns the smallest integer greater than or equal to a specified number
C. TRUNC: can be used with NUMBER and DATE values
D. CONCAT: can be used to combine any number of values
E. MOD: returns the quotient of a division operation

Correct Answer: CE

Reference: https://www.folkstalk.com/2012/01/oracle-single-row-functions-examples.html

QUESTION 4

SCOTT is a user in the database.
Evaluate the commands issued by the DBA:

dumpsdemo 1z0-071 q4

Which statement is true regarding the execution of the above commands?
A. Statement 1 would not execute because the WITH GRANT option is missing.
B. Statement 2 would not execute because system privileges and object privileges cannot be granted together in a
single GRANT command.
C. Statement 3 would not execute because role and system privileges cannot be granted together in a single GRANT
statement.
D. Statement 1 would not execute because the IDENTIFIED BY clause is missing.

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 5

View the Exhibit and examine the structure of CUSTOMERS table.

dumpsdemo 1z0-071 q5

Evaluate the following query:

dumpsdemo 1z0-071 q5-1

Which statement is true regarding the above query?
A. It produces an error because the condition on the CUST_CITY column is not valid.
B. It produces an error because the condition on the CUST_FIRST_NAME column is not valid.
C. It produces an error because conditions on the CUST_CREDIT_LIMIT column are not valid.
D. It executes successfully.

Correct Answer: D

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[2020.7] Popular Oracle 1z0-144 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1

Which statements are true about the WHEN OTHERS exception handler? (Choose two.)
A. It can be the first exception handler.
B. It can be the only exception handler for the code.
C. It traps all the exceptions that are not already trapped.
D. You can have multiple other clauses to trap all the multiple unhandled exceptions.

Correct Answer: BC

QUESTION 2

Which two statements are true about the INSTEAD OF triggers? (Choose two.)
A. DELETE operations cannot be performed using the INSTEAD OF triggers.
B. The INSTEAD OF triggers must be created to add or modify data through any view.
C. The INSTEAD OF triggers can be written only for views, and the BEFORE and AFTER timing options are not valid.
D. The CHECK option for views is not enforced when insertions or updates to the view are performed by using the
INSTEAD OF triggers.

Correct Answer: CD

QUESTION 3

Which two statements are true about database triggers? (Choose two.)
A. Each trigger can be of any size.
B. Each trigger can be of a maximum size of 32 KB.
C. A trigger can contain a maximum of 32 lines of code.
D. Triggers fired by DML statements cannot cascade simultaneously.
E. Both DML and DDL statements can cascade any number of triggers.
F. Both data manipulation language (DML) and data definition language (DDL) statements can cascade up to 32
triggers.

Correct Answer: BF

QUESTION 4

Which two statements are true about the continue statement? (Choose two.)
A. The PL/SQL block execution terminates immediately.
B. The CONTINUE statement cannot appear outside a loop.
C. The loop completes immediately and control passes to the statement after end loop.
D. The statements after the continue statement in the iteration are executed before terminating the LOOP.
E. The current iteration of the loop completes immediately and control passes to the next iteration of the loop.

Correct Answer: BE

QUESTION 5

View the Exhibit to examine the PL/SQL code.

dumpsdemo 1z0-144 q5

Which statement is true about the execution of the code?
A. The exception raised in the code is handled by the exception handler for the PAST_DUE exception.
B. It does not execute because you cannot declare an exception with a similar name in the subblock.
C. The PAST_DUE exception raised in the subblock causes the program to terminate abruptly because there is no
exception handler in the subblock.
D. The PAST_DUE exception raised by the enclosing block is not propagated to the outer block and it is handled by the
WHEN OTHERS exception handler

Correct Answer: D

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[2020.7] Popular Oracle 1z0-750 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1

John has a form page with an email item and a status item.
What must John do to ensure that the email item is populated before users can enter any value into the status item on
the form page?
A. dynamic action on the email item
B. validation on the email item
C. plug-in for the status item
D. server-side condition on the status item

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 2

William has created the chart on the left, which displays values.
He wants to show the chart on the right, which displays percentages.

dumpsdemo 1z0-750 q2

Which step should William perform to display percentages?
A. Set the Column Mapping > Value to “Percentage”.
B. Set Label > Display As to “Percentage”.
C. Update the query to return percentage values.
D. Set Tooltip > Show Value to “No.”

Correct Answer: A

QUESTION 3

Francisco has been tasked with creating a Frequently Asked Questions (FAQ) page. The page security requirements
are defined as: Anyone who can access the application, in any capacity, shall also be able to view the new FAQ page.
Which page-level Authorization Scheme and Authentication options should Francisco choose?
A. Authorization Scheme: Reader Rights; Authentication: Page Requires Authentication
B. Authorization Scheme: Null; Authentication: Page is Public
C. Authorization Scheme: {Not Reader Rights}; Authentication: Page Is Public
D. Authorization Scheme: Must Not Be Public User; Authentication: Page Requires Authentication

Correct Answer: B

QUESTION 4

George used to Create Page Wizard to create a calendar on the DEMO_ORDERS table based on the
ORDER_TIMESTAMP column. However, the calendar shows only the month and list views. What does George need to
do to show week and day views?
A. Select the End Date Column
B. Set Show Time to “Yes”
C. Set Maximum Events / Day to greater than 1
D. Select Week and Day under Calendar Views and Navigation

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/html/E39147_04/bldapp_cal.htm

QUESTION 5

Penny has created a special survey page, Page 8, where she wants to hide the standard navigation menu. Which two
ways can Penny hide the navigation menu only for Page 8? (Choose two.)
A. Update the navigation menu and set the condition of Never for Page 8.
B. Change Page Template to Minimal (No Navigation) for Page 8.
C. Go to Page Shared Components. Right-click the navigation menu entry and select Delete.
D. Delete the Navigation Menu region from Page 8.
E. Set Override User Interface Level to Yes.
F. Do not include Page 8 in the list of pages in the navigation menu.

Correct Answer: AB

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[2020.7] Popular Oracle 1z0-1084-20 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1

You are processing millions of files in an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI) Object Storage bucket. Each time a new file
is created, you want to send an email to the customer and create an order in a database. The solution should perform
and
minimize cost.
Which action should you use to trigger this email? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Schedule a cron job that monitors the OCI Object Storage bucket and emails the customer when a new file is
created.
B. Use OCI Events service and OCI Notification service to send an email each time a file is created.
C. Schedule an Oracle Function that checks the OCI Object Storage bucket every minute and emails the customer
when a file is found.
D. Schedule an Oracle Function that checks the OCI Object Storage bucket every second and emails the customer
when a file is found.

Correct Answer: C

QUESTION 2

Which is NOT a valid option to execute a function deployed on Oracle Functions? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Send a signed HTTP requests to the function\’s invoke endpoint
B. Invoke from Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI
C. Invoke from Docker CLI
D. Trigger by an event in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Events service
E. Invoke from Fn Project CLI

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Functions/Concepts/functionshowitworks.htm

QUESTION 3

You are implementing logging in your services that will be running in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Container Engine for
Kubernetes. Which statement describes the appropriate logging approach? (Choose the best answer.)
A. Each service logs to its own log file.
B. All services log to an external logging system.
C. All services log to standard output only.
D. All services log to a shared log file.

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://dzone.com/articles/5-best-security-practices-for-kubernetes-and-oracle-kubernetes-engine

QUESTION 4

Which two handle Oracle Functions authentication automatically? (Choose two.)
A. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure SDK
B. cURL
C. Oracle Cloud Infrastructure CLI
D. Signed HTTP Request
E. Fn Project CLI

Correct Answer: AE

Reference: https://blogs.oracle.com/developers/oracle-functions-invoking-functions-automatically-with-cloud-events

QUESTION 5

Which two are benefits of distributed systems? (Choose two.)
A. Privacy
B. Security
C. Ease of testing
D. Scalability
E. Resiliency

Correct Answer: DE

Reference: https://www.cis.upenn.edu/~lee/07cis505/Lec/lec-ch1-DistSys-v4.pdf

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[2020.7] Popular Oracle 1z0-1085-20 exam practice questions (1-5)

QUESTION 1

According to the shared security model, which two are a customer\’s responsibilities in Oracle Cloud Infrastructure (OCI)?
(Choose two.)
A. Object Storage data durability
B. Customer data
C. Local NVMe data persistence
D. Physical security of OCI data center facilities
E. Virtual Machine hypervisor

Correct Answer: AB

Reference: https://cloudcheckr.com/cloud-security/shared-responsibility-model/

QUESTION 2

Which is NOT required to register and log support requests in My Oracle Support (MOS)?
A. Your resource OCID (Oracle Cloud Identifier)
B. Your Tenancy OCID (Oracle Cloud Identifier)
C. Your account password
D. Your Customer Support Identifier (CSI)

Correct Answer: A

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/pdf/ug/OCI_User_Guide.pdf

QUESTION 3

Which Oracle Cloud infrastructure service can you use to assess user security of your Oracle databases?
A. Audit Service
B. Audit Vault and Database Firewall option for Oracle Database Enterprise Edition
C. Oracle Data Guard
D. Oracle Data Safe

Correct Answer: D

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/data-safe/doc/oracle-data-safe-overview.html

QUESTION 4

You were recently assigned to manage a project to deploy Oracle E-Business Suite on Oracle Cloud Infrastructure
(OCI). The application will require a database, several servers, and a shared file system. Which three OCI services are
best suited for this project? (Choose three.)
A. OCI Streaming Service
B. Object Storage Service
C. File Storage Service
D. Virtual Machine (VM) or Bare Metal (BM) compute instances
E. OCI virtual or Bare Metal DB Systems
F. Oracle Container Engine for Kubernetes

Correct Answer: BCE

Reference: https://docs.oracle.com/en/solutions/deploy-ebusiness-suite-oci/index.html#GUID-1F8ACA7B-C147-446FA4A4-AD70E4ECCA66

QUESTION 5

What characteristics are defined by an Oracle Cloud Infrastructure Compute shape?
A. Availability Domain and Fault Domain locations
B. Number of vCPU, amount of RAM, bandwidth
C. Number of OCPU, amount of RAM, bandwidth
D. Public or private visibility of the Compute instance

Correct Answer: C

Reference: https://docs.cloud.oracle.com/en-us/iaas/Content/Compute/Concepts/computeoverview.htm

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This exam tests a candidate’s knowledge and skills to develop and integrate solutions, identify adoption barriers and actions to remove them, implement adoption frameworks and interpret customer usage data while leading customers to renewals and cultivating new sales opportunities through the entire customer lifecycle.

Latest updates Cisco 820-605 exam practice questions

QUESTION 1
From a Customer Success perspective, which reason to monitor your customer\\’s health is the most important?
A. It provides the opportunity to address any changes in the customer\\’s experience or actions around the solution
B. It allows the customer to identify unused licenses so they can be addressed via a service improvement plan
C. Understanding your customer\\’s health directly enables renewals
D. It gives the customer valuable insight so they can automatically renew critical on time
Correct Answer: C
Reference: https://www.gainsight.com/customer-success-best-practices/how-to-score-customer-health/

 

QUESTION 2
A large university has deployed a new IT solution designed to improve the overall student and staff experience. Which
approach to measure success is the best?
A. Twice yearly student and staff surveys with two questions related to IT
B. Measure the number of complaints raised by students
C. Combination of tailored surveys and IT tools-based metrics
D. Implement staff Super Users to provide feedback
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 3
Which key industry trend explains the need for companies to invest in a Customer Success practice and Customer
Success Manager role?
A. Service organizations must evolve from a “break-fix” business model to proactive and pre-emptive services that help
prevent problems for customers before they arise and accelerate solution adoption. The CSM advises and professional
services team on the best services to the position.
B. IT budgets are shifting to the line of business decision-makers who want to understand the business outcomes from
technology investments before they purchase. The CSM supports sales with use cases and testimonials for proposed
solutions.
C. IT is increasingly adopting new consumption models. In a subscription economy, customers can cancel subscriptions
if business value and tangible outcomes are not realized. The CSM ensures that the customer\\’s business outcomes
are achieved with the shortest time to value.
D. The accelerated pace of innovation in the era of the Internet of Things confuses many customers. A CSM helps sales
position the right technologies that will accelerate success for their business.
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 4
What is the best method to measure customer consumption of technology?
A. telemetry and analytics
B. recurring revenue management
C. enterprise CRM and incident management
D. content management
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
The customer wants to reduce their exposure to security events. Which business outcome is critical to the company\\’s
success?
A. risk management
B. market growth
C. sustainability
D. cost-efficiency
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 6
Refer to the exhibit. Which initial action does a Customer Success Manager take?dumpsdemo 820-605 exam questions q6

A. Run analysis on all the license types used by the customer on all platforms
B. Share the report with the customer point of contact for license types B and D and determine causes
C. Provide trending information on license types B and D and share with all stakeholders
D. Inform the Sales Account Manager to position a new version of licenses types B and D with additional features
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 7
A customer is coming up for renewal in 180 days for three solutions. One of the solutions has not been fully enabled.
The other two solutions are in regular use in production. How should the Customer Success Manager address the one the solution that has not been fully enabled?
A. Contact the services team and request that they reach out to the customer to address the solution
B. Make the renewals manager aware that the one solution is not fully implemented but the other two are fine
C. Investigate why the customer has not enabled the solution and work with the sales and renewals teams to address
the issue
D. No action is needed because the customer will probably renew and you can address the issue after the renewal
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 8
Which outcome is the best that a Customer Success Manager can achieve for a customer?
A. adoption of all the licenses and features the customer purchased leading to expansion to improve the customer\\’s
business
B. full adoption of all the technologies the customer purchased
C. removing barriers so the customer achieves the fastest time to value possible from the solution they purchased
D. ensuring the customer’s deployment teams and end users are trained and ready to adopt the technology
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
DRAG DROP
Drag and drop three valid elements of a success plan from the left to the right. Not all options are used.
Select and Place:dumpsdemo 820-605 exam questions q9

Correct Answer:

dumpsdemo 820-605 exam questions q9-1

 

QUESTION 10
In which stage does the Customer Success Manager initially validate stakeholders?
A. onboarding
B. deployment
C. utilization
D. purchase
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
Which type of analytics has telemetry that shows the customer\\’s use of the software and defines what has happened
to date?
A. descriptive
B. diagnostic
C. prescriptive
D. predictive
Correct Answer: B

 

QUESTION 12
A Customer Success Manager must deliver high touch customer success experience. Which customer engagement the model must be used?
A. Utilize a digital engagement so all your customers experience the touch of customer success
B. Utilize people to focus on the elite customers for a 1:1 or 1:few onsite customer success experience
C. Utilize the service team to form a larger internal team to lead the engagement
D. Utilize people to focus your customers in a 1:many customer success experience
Correct Answer: A

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Latest Updates Cisco 700-905 Exam Practice Questions and Answers

QUESTION 1
Refer to the exhibitdumpsdemo exam questions q1

Which VIC model supports two-wire connectivity to each Fabric Interconnect?
A. VIC 1227
B. VIC 1557
C. VIC 1387
D. VIC 1457
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 2
When building a HyperFlex cluster which two recommendations should be followed? (Choose two.)
A. Use HX 220s for compute nodes and HX 240s for converged nodes
B. Use B-Series servers to improve the converged node scale.
C. Use the same CPU model but memory configuration can be different.
D. Use the same server configuration for the cluster.
E. Use the same server model for the cluster.
Correct Answer: DE


QUESTION 3
HyperFlex virtual servers differ from regular servers in which two key areas? (Choose two.)
A. NVMe: Regular servers do not support NVMe drives for high availability.
B. No RAID is required to consolidate disks into a shared data platform.
C. CVM: Virtual appliance, which performs reading/writing, caching, deduplication, and compression.
D. SP: UCS Service Profiles are used to delineate MAC address pools from upstream networks.
E. CCC: Cisco Cloud Center is used for multi-cloud integration and seamless deployment.
Correct Answer: BC

 

QUESTION 4
How many vCPUs does the HXDP controller VM require?
A. 8
B. 6
C. 2
D. 4
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 5
When local writing or reading is performed, the lOVisor intercepts the read/write requests and forwards them to CVMs
across the cluster This action allows non-local CVMs to be aware of the input/output requests so that they can perform
the appropriate input/output action lOVisor provides which two additional functionalities? (Choose two.)
A. provides redundancy when local CVM fails, offloading data processing to another CVM in the cluster
B. when an lOVisor fails, the CVM remains active and functional, which enables uninterrupted operation of the system
by forwarding 10 to another available lOVisor In the HyperFlex cluster
C. enables asynchronous replication of data across individual HyperFlex nodes with sub-second re-convergence
D. integration point for deployment of cloud-based SaaS offerings from eco-system partners
E. intercepts local virtual machines\\’ reads and writes and distributes them across the network eliminating hotspots
Correct Answer: AE

 

QUESTION 6
With which three components must every HyperFlex cluster be equipped with in regard to disks? (Choose three.)
A. NVMe drives
B. there are no specific requirements
C. same type of cache drives
D. same type and size of the capacity of drives
E. same number of capacity drives
F. SAS drives
Correct Answer: CDE

 

QUESTION 7
Which two components are automatically configured from the information provided to the HyperFlex installer? (Choose
two )
A. the network
B. operating system deployment preparation
C. controller VM configuration
D. application dependencies
E. server firmware policy
Correct Answer: AC

 

QUESTION 8
Which statement about Standalone Cisco UCS Server Deployments is valid?
A. They require Cisco Fabric Interconnects to operate, which reduces the Operating Expenses (OpEx) associated with
the deployment
B. They do not require Cisco Fabric Interconnects to operate, which reduces the Operating Expenses (OpEx)
associated with the deployment
C. They do not require Cisco Fabric Interconnects to operate, which reduces the Capital Expenses (CapEx) associated
with the deployment
D. They require Cisco Fabric Interconnects to operate, which reduces the Capital Expenses (CapEx) associated with
the deployment
Correct Answer: C

 

QUESTION 9
Which three features do Managed Deployments provide? (Choose three.)
A. Great tor managing large deployments, scalability, and oversight of the UCS servers.
B. Consistent deployment by replicating working configurations from development labs to the production deployment
C. High availability of the management system and connectivity when using 2 Cisco Fabric Interconnects
D. Individual configuration of each redundant fabric or global configuration.
E. Increased operating overhead, raising Operating Expenses (OpEx)
F. Decentralized yet complex management of an entire UCS domain.
Correct Answer: ACD

 

QUESTION 10
What is the maximum number of cores supported in the Cisco UCS M5 server?
A. 28
B. 22
C. 12
D. 8
Correct Answer: A

 

QUESTION 11
A. creates hooks tor services related to third-party abstraction applications
B. does not perform caching, deduplication: and compression of data
C. an Ubuntu-based VM running in the control space of each individual server, having linear access to the server\\’s
VMs and networking controls
D. needs network access to ESXi. other CVMs, and management network
E. is installed automatically by the HyperFlex installer, configured through the installer
Correct Answer: DE

 

QUESTION 12
Drag the server type from the left onto the maximum number of capacity drives on the right.
Select and Place:

dumpsdemo exam questions q12

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